I said "Aramaic was the common language spoken among the Jews in the time of Jesus. Not Hebrew." I never said "EVERYTHING was in Aramaic." My entire series of posts suggests just the opposite - that most people of the time were bilingual, and some trilingual, but that Aramaic was the "heart language" of the people (as the author of the article I cited puts it.)
It's useless to argue with you because you just make stuff up as you go along. I'm done.
I have to retract what I said about the Septuigant, I havent been studying this for a while, and I am sure I forgot a lot, so, I retract what I said and apologize, you are probably right.
But I was dead right about Peter, though! :)
It is also tiresome to debate with you because you just ignore what is posted.
You start by telling me that Jesus Spoke Aramaic because everyone else did, then you tell me only some did...
What next?
All I did when I said Jesus spoke Hebrew was a personal opinion, and both of us agree Hebrew was A spoken language in Israel, didn't we?
So, since you yourself agree Hebrew was a spoken language then, why did you even start the argument?
Stop and think: When the languages were scattered at Babel, did Abrahm's father speak one of them?
Did Abrahm's sons speak the same language as Abrahm?
Did Isaac speak the same language?
Did Jacob speak the same language?
Did Moses speak the same language as his fathers?
Is there any reason to expect that the same language spoken of, written of in the Law in the Synagogues, was NOT spoken in Israel?
And due to the multilingual necessity due to centuries of conquest through Israel, wouldn't there still be one language that the Jews would call their own? Hebrew?
Why would Jesus speak, then, a language other than what was the language of the Bible itself, given to Israel, given Through Israel?