I can not help but notice the reference to the Holy Roman Empire in the first paragraph and Roman Empire later. Is this a typo? If not he is the very first to suggest Daniel refers to the HOLY Roman Empire as distinct from the Ancient Roman Empire as it existed at the time of Christ.
This is very important distinction. Many recognize PAGAN Rome in the prophecies but none have seen the Christian Holy Roman Empire in these passages. The author would be the first I have ever seen.
There are a number of bible based cults that believe that.