I really don't see how I can possibly explain this any clearer. The drug dealer is pocketing money that belongs to the government under the sales tax. He is cheating the sales tax system the same way he would cheats the income tax system. Or are you saying that drugs are not goods under the NRST? It is my understanding that all purchases of goods by consumers is suppose to result in tax being collected and remitted. Drug dealers will not do this and is not 'fair' to those legal retailers who will. Drug dealers pocket 100% of their gross sales, legal retailers pocket 77%. How is that fair?
Fair??? Fair??? What do you know about "fair"? With all of your specious arguments (including this one) you have the audacity to talk about "fair"???
I'll type real slow so pay attention:
Neither the Income Tax nor the FairTax taxes I-L-L-E-G-A-L I-N-C-O-M-E. That's why they call it "illegal income" - it's outside the system of taxation.
To try to pretend that the FairTax is somehow deficient in not taxing ILLEGAL INCOME (got it???) is absurd since neither tax system does by definition.