[Principled]

Currently, since the drug dealer skips out on some of his taxes (remember he doesn't pay income tax nor does he pay payroll tax), the rest of us have to pay a little more in order to make up for the drug dealer's shortfall.

But under the nrst, he drug dealer pays 100% of his taxes, so the rest of us no longer have to pay any of his taxes.

Nobody is saying the aggregate collected changes.

[Always Right]

But under the nrst, he drug dealer pays 100% of his taxes

But he pockets the sales tax he is suppose to collect and remit. He is legally liable to remit 23% of the tax for the goods he sells, but does not. He is absolutely not paying 100% of his taxes he owes. How can you keep repeating that?