But could either of them read Greek? Aquinas could not, although he had the benefit of particulary good translations.
In fairness to the claims being made on this thread, they are both a century after this particular book was apparently scrubbed. And the particular owner may have been in the situation you describe. But the idea that no one in the high middle ages was learned enough to appreciate it is simply a completely false prejudice of ignorant people in modern times, sneering at medievals as such.
There was plenty of ignorance in that day. There is plenty of ignorance now (look at history tests of college freshman if you doubt it - and the tabloids, and pop culture, and the third world, and Islamic nutjobs, etc etc). There were peaks of learning then as there are peaks of learning now.