I'm sure this is true, whatever it says, but the expression of your idea is rather poor. What, for exsample, is the logical difference between infinite and uncountable?
When you can generalize beyond the specific eccentricities of the specific problem on which you are working, you can begin to understand what is happening.
I suppose this is, in some way or another, not technically false, but what does it mean?
AmishDude may correct me, but I think I remember that integers are infinite but countable, while irrational numbers are both infinite and uncountable. There is a difference.
What, for exsample, [sic] is the logical difference between infinite and uncountable?
And right back atcha.
To answer your question, it's the difference between aleph-null and aleph-one. But I didn't want to get into symbolism.
I suppose this is, in some way or another, not technically false, but what does it mean?
Exactly my point.