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To: AmishDude
Women, for example, are an example of a system in which the variables is[sic] not just infinite, but uncountable.

I'm sure this is true, whatever it says, but the expression of your idea is rather poor. What, for exsample, is the logical difference between infinite and uncountable?

When you can generalize beyond the specific eccentricities of the specific problem on which you are working, you can begin to understand what is happening.

I suppose this is, in some way or another, not technically false, but what does it mean?

354 posted on 05/10/2005 12:06:43 PM PDT by js1138 (e unum pluribus)
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To: js1138
What, for exsample, is the logical difference between infinite and uncountable?

AmishDude may correct me, but I think I remember that integers are infinite but countable, while irrational numbers are both infinite and uncountable. There is a difference.

357 posted on 05/10/2005 12:09:33 PM PDT by Thatcherite (Conservative and Biblical Literalist are not synonymous)
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To: js1138
Thank you for catching my [sic].

What, for exsample, [sic] is the logical difference between infinite and uncountable?

And right back atcha.

To answer your question, it's the difference between aleph-null and aleph-one. But I didn't want to get into symbolism.

I suppose this is, in some way or another, not technically false, but what does it mean?

Exactly my point.

361 posted on 05/10/2005 12:12:47 PM PDT by AmishDude (Join the AmishDude fan club: "Very well put, AD. As usual." -- Howlin; "ROFL!" -- Dan from Michigan)
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