Except of course,for this one;
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
I hate to disillusion you, but where in the 10th. Amendment is the word "rights" actually used? Are you one of those that claim that "rights" are implied? If so, then why are the terms "rights" and "powers" used so precisely throughout the Constitution without being used interchangeably? Because the Founding Fathers were precise and used these terms in the contexts intended. The only "rights" that reside within the 10th Amendment are contained within the phrase; "or to the people", because only people have rights, governments do not. Had the Founding Fathers wanted to grant rights to the states - and I don't know by what authority the feds could do that - the 10th Amendment would have said so.