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To: elbucko
...but where in the 10th. Amendment is the word "rights" actually used?

You're playing semantics.

...Because the Founding Fathers were precise and used these terms in the contexts intended....

"The right of coining money, which is here taken from the States, was left in their hands by the Confederation, as a concurrent right with that of Congress, under an exception in favor of the exclusive right of Congress to regulate the alloy and value. In this instance, also, the new provision is an improvement on the old. Whilst the alloy and value depended on the general authority, a right of coinage in the particular States could have no other effect than to multiply expensive mints and diversify the forms and weights of the circulating pieces. The latter inconveniency defeats one purpose for which the power was originally submitted to the federal head;Federalist 44-
http://www.constitution.org/fed/federa44.htm

Are you one of those that claim that "rights" are implied?

Yeah,you got me.Saw right through me.I am one of those who believes that I was born with rights,which may have been merely implied before they were stated in no uncertain terms in the Declaration of Independence.

Had the Founding Fathers wanted to grant rights to the states - and I don't know by what authority the feds could do that - the 10th Amendment would have said so.

The founders were not granting rights to the states but limiting their(constituents')rights,like ANY form of government.Far from granting rights,we in America believe that rights precede government,and that governments are established to preserve those rights.And the authority comes from the consent of the governed.

I hate to disillusion you,...

No worries about that.

119 posted on 04/27/2005 1:37:42 PM PDT by kennyo
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To: kennyo
You're playing semantics.

No I'm not. You're just po'd and confused because some of your long held, but erroneous beliefs are, in fact, wrong!

Federalist 44-

The Federalist paper No. 44, is not the law of the land, the Constitution is. The use of the word "rights" in these papers were for the popular understanding of the times to a not entirely literate society. See the wording of the 9th Amendment and you see the Founding Fathers make a direct connection between "the people" and "rights". Rights are superior to "powers" and that is why the distinction.

If you actually believe that powers and rights are interchangeable and mean the same thing, then you have just condemned this country to become the totalitarian society that we all fear. The Left believes that government has "rights". The concept of rights and powers is the struggle against the socialists that we are engaged in. Socialists/Collectivists believe that government has "right's".

Are you one of those that claim that "rights" are implied?

No.

I am one of those who believes that I was born with rights,

So am I!

Far from granting rights,we in America believe that rights precede government,...

I agree. Rights existed before government.

...and that governments are established to preserve those rights.

Yes, governments are empowered by the governed to protect rights that existed before government.

And the authority comes from the consent of the governed.

Yes, with "the people", where ultimately, all rights and powers reside.

So what's your beef?

120 posted on 04/27/2005 4:14:52 PM PDT by elbucko
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