To: Chad Fairbanks
It' sillyon it's face.
If the judiciary enters an order for a specific act to be performed, and the act ordered is specifically declared to be unlawful by statute, is a crime committed when the order is carried out, and if so by whom?
To: MTOrlando
I bet if you looked closer, you'd find that the judge has immunity from prosecution for actions resultant from his legal rulings, but I don't know that for a fact...
290 posted on
03/26/2005 9:11:58 PM PST by
Chad Fairbanks
(Sure you can trust the government... just ask an Indian...)
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