The :giving away" is symbolic as to the care of the individual being transferred from parent to spouse. But it would be a stretch to assume that such "care" would include killing the person by forced starvation/dehydration. When my father-in-law "gave away" his daughter to me at our wedding, I don't think he thought that would include the right to kill her.
I have heard that in some Middle Eastern countries, killing the female spouse is within the rights of the husband. I have been told that in ancient Rome the father of a family could choose to kill his infant child by abandoning it in the countryside to die of exposure if he choose not to take the trouble to raise it. So I guess there is contemporary and historical precedent for familial murder. But I had assumed all along that we were a more civilized and enlightened society than these barbaric ones. Silly me, I guess I was wrong...
Yes you are being silly, Your examples of ancient times and primitive cultures have no bearing on this situation. If you can't see the difference, I'm not going to explain it to you.