Because he's following her wishes, perhaps?
Why did he suddenly "remember" those wishes almost ten years later? Why did he lie about them under oath? How can a person who is de facto married to another spouse act as a disinterested guardian for a spouse that's in his way?
Because he's following her wishes, perhaps?
There is NO evidence whatsoever that she desired to be killed, if she became incapacitated.
Her "wishes" that he didn't remember about until about 3 years after her "accident"?
It's irritating to read uninformed remarks when all the information on this case is available
You seem to think he is following her wishes, you are uninformed, because he never said those were her wishes until after the lawsuit was settled and he had $$$$$$$$$$ in his fist, altho he told the court he was going to use the money to "care for his wife"!
Why weren't they her wishes until after the malpractice suit? He couldn't remember them until testimony in 98. Took awhile for the memory to "come to him"?