If homosexuality is genetic, then why do modern Greeks engage in the practice at a rate that's a fraction of what their ancestors did? Did the Greek genome really change that much in 2000 years?
If homosexuality were so accepted that homosexuals did not feel that they had to pretend to be heterosexual -- i.e., marry and procreate -- that might well reduce the extent to which homosexuality was prevalent in the gene pool.
That's a really interesting question, but I think it's based on a misunderstanding of Greek homosexuality.
In ancient Greece, it was common for a young boy to have an intimate relationship with an older man, but it was more of a social relationship than an erotic one. The man was attracted to the boy's features, which were often feminine. Rarely would the relationship continue once the boy reached puberty. The young boy was only in it for the connections the rich, older man could provide.
Homosexuality (the type that is seen today) was actually quite rare in ancient Greece. In fact, a man who lusted after another older man was considered to be abnormal. The most famous example of this is Alcibiades' love for Socrates, which caused many to view him as a pervert.
Homosexuality is a CHOICE.
One is either male or female.
It is a decision and you cannot prove a decision.
Homosexuality is a CHOICE.
One is either male or female.
It is a decision and you cannot prove a decision.
Homosexuality is a CHOICE.
One is either male or female.
It is a decision and you cannot prove a decision.
Homosexuality is a CHOICE.
One is either male or female.
It is a decision and you cannot prove a decision.
Homosexuality is a CHOICE.
One is either male or female.
It is a decision and you cannot prove a decision.