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To: Fatalis
Then why do so many literal Creationists claim that of Genesis 1?

For many reasons, one of which is a link in post #160.

165 posted on 12/09/2004 2:30:34 PM PST by Dataman
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To: Dataman
The problem for you in that link at #160 is that every example Griggs gives of an alternative word for "yom" that Moses could have used in Genesis 1 to mean either "a continuing event from long ago" or ambiguous time" would also apply to Genesis 2:4, in which you've conceded that "yom" is figurative and not literal.

Griggs doesn't address Genesis 2, so you're left with making an exception in chapter 2 for the Griggs' rule you're relying on for chapter 1. Doesn't seem like much of a rule.

167 posted on 12/09/2004 2:41:39 PM PST by Fatalis
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