To: Publius Valerius
Why not? In the beginning "could" mean when God stretched forth His creative finger into the pond of nothingness and all that we've come to know, in this universe, leapt forth from that event (event implies time which it should not in this case). Eternity, in theological terms, is not time without end, it is no time at all. The past, present, and future don't exist. It just is ("A Thousand years is but a day to the Lord", not to be taken literally, but figuratively). Time is as much part of creation as you and I. Since God is outside time, how he created it is irrelavent.
69 posted on
10/22/2004 8:06:37 AM PDT by
AMHN
To: AMHN
73 posted on
10/22/2004 8:13:19 AM PDT by
twoshed
(Duty, honor, country)
To: AMHN
Ok. So let's say, then, for argument's sake, that the date of the "beginning" of the universe (the time period at which God decided to create) was Oct. 22, 4004 B.C.
Now then, at that time, not only did he set in motion our current existence, but he also created the past.
What of the past, then? Did it exist? Did those people exist? Did they live lives or were they nothing more than a mere collection of dated bones from the very beginning of their existence? If they DID exist, I think you run into some fairly serious free will problems.
While you make some interesting points, I think the Aquinas Prime Mover understanding of creation makes more logical sense and avoids some of the problems contingent with your theory.
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson