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To: Tax-chick

I take it England, then (in 1013) did not include Scotland, Wales, or Ireland (as opposed to common useage today which is erroneously synonymous with Great Britain)?


126 posted on 01/24/2006 11:32:56 PM PST by Smokin' Joe (How often God must weep at humans' folly.)
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To: Smokin' Joe

No. If "England" were used at all at that time, it would cover only the south and southeast, not even Cornwall.


127 posted on 01/25/2006 4:11:12 AM PST by Tax-chick (Hoping to have a baby TODAY.)
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