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To: PatrickHenry
As for polygamy, I think Utah gave it up as a condition of statehood. I could be wrong about that, but I'm pretty sure that they weren't getting in otherwise.

That would be correct and the feds gave Utah a choice, accept the federal definition of marriage as the union of one man and one woman or join Mexico.

That is the precedent for the federal governments defining marriage while states regualte it. All the rest of the states rights bs is simply that bs.

Marriage is and has been defined by the feds as the union of one man and one woman.

18 posted on 07/25/2004 6:33:23 PM PDT by jwalsh07
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To: jwalsh07

See post 17.


20 posted on 07/25/2004 6:34:42 PM PDT by narses (If you want ON or OFF my Catholic Ping List email me. +)
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To: jwalsh07

Clarence Thomas believes you can't rely on judicial precedence -- you have to go back to the founding document, in this case, the Constitution. If you rely on precedent, then one bad judicial action spawns many more -- like a game of telephone.

I don't see in the Constitution where the feds have authority over marriage. That means it belongs to the states.


27 posted on 07/25/2004 7:03:56 PM PDT by ellery (Concentrated power has always been the enemy of liberty. - Ronald Reagan)
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To: jwalsh07

Very good, concise and correct comments.


39 posted on 07/25/2004 8:26:26 PM PDT by little jeremiah (The Islamic Jihad and the Homosexual Jihad both want to destroy us.)
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