Thanks for calling it to my attention and I took your suggestion.
The consensus here seems to be that under the current Constitution, the Second Amendment means that the RKBA shall not be infringed by Federal, State, or local government.
I think a couple of posters have had their positions misunderstood on this thread, so I offer the following take on their answers.
If I have misstated their positions, I encourage them to set me straight.
Congressman Billybob wrote in #239:
Whether or not the incorporation doctrine is legitimate, it is probably too late to go backwards and reject that doctrine. However, it is clearly a dishonest doctrine as long as some parts of the BOR remain unenforced. (Sadly, intellectual dishonesty is, all too often, par for the course on the part of the Supreme Court.
That is a clear statement that the honest interpretation of the current Constitution is that the Second Amendment applies to all levels of government.
In response to the question, "Do you think that a correct reading of the Constitution means that no level of government may infringe the RKBA?", mrsmith wrote:
If the Fourteenth were applied to the Second Amendment, which may be the most important, as it is to the others very few restrictions could be placed on the RKBA.
I do not like the huge power a total incorporation of the first eight amendments gives the federal government, but that was apparently the intent of the Fourteenth's authors.
His answer means yes, the correct reading of the current Constitution is that the Second Amendment means no level of government may infringe the RKBA.
Same question. Do you think the correct reading of the current Constitution means that no level of government may infringe the RKBA?
The second amendment does NOT apply to the states. It has never applied to the states. It only applies to the federal government.