You're saying the BOR always applied to the states -- even the first amendment which specifically states, "Congress shall make no law ...". Is that correct, or are you making an exception for the first amendment?
Now, you're also saying that since the BOR applied to the states, for the last 215 years "the courts have failed to enforce the Constitution and that legislatures pass unconstitutional laws".
That's your position, huh? And that makes sense to you?