Before you call me "SILLY" and "IGNORANT" again, let me find my citations for your perusal.
In MS, LA and SC, slave ownership devolved on @ 50% of whites and on 1/3 in the rest of the so-called seceded states.
Stand Watie has seen that data many times.
Walt
in point of fact the percentage is CORRECT. there were FEW slaveowners, but those who did/could afford slaves generally owned MANY. it was more like 50-100 to one in many areas of the deep south, particuliarly in the sugar & cottonraising counties/parishes.
my home county in TX had a total of 4 slaveowners:
one owned a total of one (his wife! btw, his next-to-youngest granddaughter is still living. i interviewed her some years ago for the local community college newspaper.).
one had 4 slaves.
one had 8 in 1850.
the last had evidently 146 at one point (1850 tax data).
the rest of the county population owned NONE!
one county in MS had a total of TWO (2) slaveowners in 1860,each of whom owned more than 200 slaves "of working age" . i don't know what their TOTAL number of slaves was.
face it CPT, slaves were EXPENSIVE & the VAST majority of southerners COULDN'T have bought any slaves IF they had wanted to! (i would like to point out that i'd like to own a mansion, a dozen Ferrari automobiles,the Dallas Cowboys, a 100' yacht, etc.,etc., etc. i have about the same chance to get all those things as the typical white southerner had of EVER buying a slave, given that the NET assets of the average southern male in 1860 was about TWENTY-FIVE DOLLARS ($ 25.00) & that the annual AVERAGE NET income for a family of five was LESS than FIFTY DOLLARS ($ 50.00)!)
free dixie,sw