Your premise is once again false. Congress is explicitly stated in Article I, Section 1, which defines its own application to extend over the rest of the that article. Since the habeas corpus clause is indisputably within that article it is governed by Article I, Section 1.
Where?
"All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States"
Once again, exactly what do you not understand about this clause?
Congress delegates its power all the time.
They do, but they aren't supposed to and at times when they step over the line with more eggregious cessions of power they get struck down on a separation of powers ruling.
Once again we are at the point where something is false just because you say it is.
I understand it completely. I just believe that your claim that if governs every single word in every single clause in every single section of Article I is ridiculous.
They do, but they aren't supposed to and at times when they step over the line with more eggregious cessions of power they get struck down on a separation of powers ruling.
Again, because you say so?