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To: Non-Sequitur
There are certainly those who would dispute the 'absent ANY prohibitions' part,

Please post the prohibition, if any, that existed prior to the war. Anything along the lines of "Thou shalt not secede" will be given extra consideration.

... but it doesn't change the fact that in leaving you seized property and facilities that did not belong to you ...

If the act of seizing property was a declaration of war, then why didn't Congress declare it when they were in session?

... and chose to fire on those that the Lincoln administration insisted on holding on to. You initiated the war. I'm sorry that things didn't turn out to your liking but wars are like that.

The Confederacy considered herself to be an independent nation - and the warships were just that - an invasionary force. The invasion broke the armistice in force. The majority of Lincoln's cabinet advised against sending the troops, that it would be an act of war.

'The aggressor in war is not the first who uses force, but the first who renders force necessary.'
Henry Hallam, The Constitutional History of England: From the Accession of Henry VII to the Death of George II, New York: W. J. Widdleton, 1871, Vol. II, p. 219.

667 posted on 01/21/2004 6:09:26 AM PST by 4CJ (||) Dialing 911 doesn't stop a crime - a .45 does. (||)
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To: 4ConservativeJustices
Please post the prohibition, if any, that existed prior to the war.

Unilateral actions on the part of the states is not supported by the Constitution.

If the act of seizing property was a declaration of war, then why didn't Congress declare it when they were in session?

It certainly wasn't the actions of those desiring a peaceful solution.

The aggressor in war is not the first who uses force, but the first who renders force necessary.'

Why was use of force necessary at Sumter?

669 posted on 01/21/2004 6:25:26 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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