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Dear ninenot,

"In the second case, the wife asks the husband to use the condom, and he does. By her request, is she now guilty, and to what degree?"

As I've posted a couple of times, it seems that if the wife cannot dissuade her husband from forcing himself on her, she may not be acting immorally to try to at least persuade her husband to give her some protection against infection.

But no one seems to have cared for that argument.

sitetest

That I do not agree with at all. The condom is never morally acceptable. If the case was as you say she should get out of that situation. Forced sex is rape.

Seems as though Slat has nailed the case, albeit his conclusion is a VERY difficult one to accept.

There are two factors which have not been cited here. First, the "AIDS" rate in Africa is suspect--I have pinged CatholicFamily on this--I recall reading in the last few years that much of the testing done in Africa was suspect and there was a fair amount of propaganda circulated, mostly to win additional dollars (successful: GWB is spending an enormous amount on this.)

Secondly, there is a presumption, faint, but present, that African men are beasts, which is just a bit odiferous. I claim no knowledge of this, but I am puzzled that 'Western man' is so significantly superior in virtue to 'African man.'