[Dead Corpse]

Yes, of course. It would be constitutional.

No. It wouldn't be. If it was listed that such a thing could be done by government, expressly IN THE CONSTITUTION ITSELF, then it would be Constitutional. That is why there is an Amendment process. Mere passage of a bill into law is NOT rising to the standard of Constitutional Amendment.

Get a grip...

Also, some of you REALLY need to crack a Websters and look up the difference between "infringed", and "regulated".

[Jaidyn]

Jefferson said it first and it still stands as far as I'm concerned: Thomas Jefferson worried that the Courts would overstep their authority and instead of interpreting the law would begin making law....an oligarchy....the rule of few over many.