To: Boston Capitalist
Why 3/5th?
3 posted on
11/05/2003 3:10:04 PM PST by
Tac12
To: Tac12
Old Jim Crowe law pertaining to persons of colour.
4 posted on
11/05/2003 3:12:50 PM PST by
scan59
(CNN Lies (and is passing away because of it))
To: Tac12
It was part of our Constitution until amended.
The southern states wanted to count the slaves as population for representation. The northern states did'nt want the slaves to count if they had no rights as citizens. They thought this would give the South an unfair advantage in votes taken in the House of Representatives. Finally the two sides reached a compromise. The slaves would count as 3/5 of a person for representation to the House of Representatives
24 posted on
11/05/2003 5:39:02 PM PST by
Capt. Tom
(anything done in moderation shows a lack of interest -Capt. Tom circ ¢Xö48)
To: Tac12
The US Constitution (before the Civil War) let states count slaves as 3/5 person when computing electoral votes.
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