Only if they purchased the goods and services with no intent to pay. If they made any payments it is strictly a civil matter not criminal. Even if they did not make payments it would be almost impossible to prove their "intent" unless they lied on the loan application.
Legally true; however, I still consider taking without paying as stealing.
Even if they did not make payments it would be almost impossible to prove their "intent" unless they lied on the loan application.
Likewise true, but again I've worked in a company where I've seen thousands of people run up large bills just before the discontinued service - pretty obvious that they never intended to pay even though they paid their monthly bill until shortly before the end.