So then, if God deemed sodomy to be a sin, and historically in the US, the general concensus was that no one could violate the laws of God and engage in sodomy, what basis did the people of Texas use to enact a law which elevated 97% f the population above the laws of God, but sought to force 3% of the population into observing the same laws they voted themselves above? On what grounds did the people of Texas award the majority the "privilege" of engaging in deviant sexual intercourse without fear of repraisals?
The 10th Amendment guarantees that the people of the state of Texas may elect a legislature which decriminalizes sodomy between members of the opposite sex, for everyone over the age of consent.
The same 10th Amendment guarantees that the people of California may elect a legislature which decriminalizes consensual sex between adults, regardless of gender.
![](http://members.shaw.ca/victoriausa/SaberCrouch.jpg)
So then, you don't have an issue with legislated prejudice.
You just have an issue with the Court's ability to overturn it.
Thanks for helping me understand you better.