Just because the Supreme Court demands we tolerate your advocacy of sexual perversion does not mean you now have license to pervert the English language. Your statement was "There was not a single law outlawing same-sex sodomy in this country 100 years ago". That statement was a lie, because every state had a "law outlawing same-sex sodomy".
Now, you keep calling me a liar
That would be because you are lying. You have been given multiple opportunities to restate your original statement in a way that is technically accurate. You continue to refuse to do so.
Either put up a law banning same-sex sodomy prior to the 1970's, or I'll come by and wash your mouth out with soap.
Once again, every state in the US had a law banning same-sex sodomy before the 1960s. Every one. Your continued attempts to suggest otherwise and your silly threats cannot change that historical fact.
I don't want a law that banned all sodomy
Somehow I'm not surprised.
I want you to post a law banning same-sex sodomy that was in the books anywhere in the US prior to the 1970's
Once again, the sodomy laws of every state banned same-sex sodomy during those times. Several (such as Marylands's F 27-554) were ruled not to apply to non-commercial, private heterosexual conduct; thus those laws even fit your new, misleading definition ("When the law stopped pertaining to all people, it became a same-sex sodomy law.").