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There were no laws exclusively banning same-sex sodomy in America until the 1970's.

Go get your jollies off, about the fact that you figured out that I did not state the idea in a manner that suited you.

Call me a liar if it jingles your chains, I knew what I meant to say, as did others in the forum.

Now you can go claim your award for pointing out inproper verbiage.

Now, having said all that, and wasted all this valuable time, I'll stand by my original statemt that there were no laws banning same-sex sodomy until the 1970's, sodomy laws before that pertained to all people.

Now, prove me wrong and find one single same-sex sodomy law before 1970...don't come back with your word game now, just find one sodomy law, prior ro 1970, against same-sex sodomy, not just against sodomy in general.

There were no laws exclusively banning same-sex sodomy in America until the 1970's

You're either a liar or you just aren't capable of writing a coherent english sentence without being deceptive. The fact remains that same-sex sodomy has, until the decision of this court, been illegal in Texas. Just because other deviant acts (heterosexual sodomy, beastiality, etc) were also illegal has no bearing on that fact.

That statement is self-contradicting; a sodomy law that "pertained to all people" also would result in "banning same-sex sodomy."

Prior to 1960, every state had a law against same-sex sodomy. Just because most (not all, the courts in some states had ruled that "sodomy" was inherently a homosexual act and did not apply to heterosexual conduct) applied to heterosexual sodomy as well does not negate that fact.