Not at all, which is why I've asked you about private consensual prostitution. You haven't answered.
On the basis of today's ruling, how can any state have a law against private consensual prostitution?
The reason I've asked about public sex acts is that you've held that there is an unalienable right to sodomy. If it's an unalienable right, on what basis can it be required to be private?
Are you having problems reading?
I sure did.
Now, it's time for you to quit doing the rope-a-dope and answer my question, or rather Skywalk's question:
Which one of your rights is violated by two capable adults engaging in an act of consensual, homosexual sex in the privacy of their own homes?
I have not. I have made the argument that the right to privacy exists even though it isn't a Constitutional right, and I have made the argument that not all rights are enumerated.