That's not quite correct but I'll give you a little leeway.
It also wasn't a thought on the subject of the thread.
Lacking proof of harm, why would the dissolution of a persons property rights , to allow a LEGAL commodity to be consumed in their place of business, be allowed?
I can give you the short answer now but you probably won't like it.
A "no smoking" regulation in a restaurant open to the public is "the dissolution of a persons property rights." There's some overheated rhetoric.
Would your logic extend to saying that a state regulation requiring restaurant staff to wash their hands after using the bathroom is "the dissolution of a persons property rights?"