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To: CCWoody
My comment: I'm really glad the Apostle Peter didn't play such word games when he preached: "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins." [Acts 2:38]

Your response: One tiny little question: were they all baptized and saved?

Ah, but you miss the point. One of your co-defenders of the Calvinist construct cleverly commented that he understands that he cannot (under the burden of the construct) tell a roomful of people that 'Christ died for their sins' because such a statement would imply that Christ died (as He surely, surely did) for all and since we know the construct holds that Christ only died for a select few.

So your co-defender cleverly says, "Well, I just say 'Christ died for sins'" to avoid the problem. While I certainly agree that is a clever little dodge to hide the truly barbarous nature of the construct, it is non-Scriptural.

Let's just look at the Scripture for a moment (I know this can be a distraction when you already have all the answers in the Calvinist construct, but bear with me). On Pentecost there was a large crowd from many nations and yet when Peter stood up and preached the true offer of salvation, he didn't need the clever little Calvinist dodge about 'Christ dying for the sins of a select few'. Rather, he said (and the Greek is quite explicit) "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins."

Now here is the question for those who value their precious construct above Scripture: Why would he say that if he held to the construct and really knew that the offer was not to "every one of you" but only to a select few selected before the foundation of the world and that most of those before him were (and always had been) damned to Hell with no free will?

There must be some clever little dodge in the "Construct Defenders Guide for Twisting Scripture" which will explain how that wonderful old Gospel blunderbuss, the Apostle Peter, got it wrong. Well?

458 posted on 02/28/2002 8:52:07 AM PST by winstonchurchill
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To: winstonchurchill
FOR WHOM DID CHRIST DIE?

John Owen


The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for, either:
    1. All the sins of all men.
    2. All the sins of some men, or
    3. Some of the sins of all men.
In which case it may be said:
    1. That if the last be true, all men have some sins to answer for, and so, none are saved.
    2. That if the second be true, then Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth.
    3. But if the first be the case, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins?
You answer, "Because of unbelief."
I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it be, then Christ suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did, why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not, He did not die for all their sins!"

468 posted on 02/28/2002 9:09:00 AM PST by CCWoody
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