Never met the man.
The quote from the author of this article denies a causal relationship between the increasing wealth of the rich, and the decreasing wealth of the poor. The quote from the CIA speaker does not attempt to assert such a causal relationship exists. The two statements are not mutually exclusive.
The author here is right - the rich being rich does not make the poor, poor. Economics is not a zero-sum game.
But by what standards do you define someone as poor? If the rich have enormous assets and those 'on the bottom' have TV sets and VCRs, are they really poor?