I always show a decency to people who I debate, except in those rare instances when I lose my temper. This occurs when my faith is ripped to shreds, which is what happens each and every time I debate with OP and a handful of others on this forum. It is indeed lent, and I intend to be good. Therefore, I'm not going to get into a theological debate with him, which is what he is trying to bait me into. =)
I always show a decency to people who I debate, except in those rare instances when I lose my temper. This occurs when my faith is ripped to shreds, which is what happens each and every time I debate with OP and a handful of others on this forum. It is indeed lent, and I intend to be good. Therefore, I'm not going to get into a theological debate with him, which is what he is trying to bait me into. =)No, I ain't.
Here, I'll even prove it.
Amend my references to Roman Catholicism to be, instead, references to Islam. I hope we can all agree that Mohammed was not a true Prophet of God sent by the Father of all Light on a holy mission to bring the Church into a Right understanding of the Gospel of Life:
IMHO, preaching the false claims of the Mohammedan Shari'ah as the "Law of God" is immoral, and ensnares far more "clientele" worldwide than even the most entrepreneurial prostitute.But, much as I might (and do) consider Islamism to be immoral, I don't believe that I have Biblical Basis to outlaw it.
So, BIBLICALLY, what immoralities should the State prohibit, and why?
What authority has the State to ban bodily whoredom, but permit spiritual fornication?
Should it attempt to proscribe both... or neither, having no authority to do so?
Having excised all references to the Bishop of Rome, you may now address my argument, which is the same theonomic argument in either case. BIBLICALLY, what immoralities should the State prohibit, and why?