[OrthodoxPresbyterian]

I answered your Tyre question yesterday with "False."

Great. Now, precisely which clause is False?

• Did God not foreknow that the performance of Capernaum-equivalent miracles in Sodom would suffice to bring Sodom to Repentance?
• Or was He unable to choose to perform these miracles?

Which is it?

[xzins]

which clause is false?

Wait a minute. Let me go back and find it. Do you realize that this thread is almost a 1000 posts long?

[xzins]

God foreknew Tyre and Sidon's free choice NOT TO REPENT in the case of His non-performance of such Miracles; AND God foreknew Tyre and Sidon's free choice TO REPENT in the case of His performance of such Miracles; AND God CHOSE not to perform these Miracles in Tyre and Sidon, a choice which had as its perfectly foreknown result the NON-Repentance of Tyre and Sidon, just as He foreknew. True, or False?

False.

The logical "because" that is left out is that you are saying God chose not to perform these miracles because it is God's nature to not intervene in a loving manner, that God makes petulant or capricious decisions.

Therefore, it is false because the nature of God is humble, loving, righteous, and fair.

You have proposed an erroneous (albeit unspoken) reason to explain the hypothetical condition that Jesus proposed.