I don't think that this author was trying to fool anyone. I think that he was trying to prove a point: That the share of income taxes paid by wealthy Americans is grossly disproportionate to the share of income earned by wealthy Americans. I think that the question he was trying to answer was, "Do the wealthy pay their "fair share" of taxes?" I think the answer to that question is "yes," based on the evidence presented.
While some of your posts raise some interesting issues, such as what was the rate of income growth for wealthy households during the period being examined, such questions are not really relevant to this author's premise. It seems like you are trying to discredit this author because the results he's reporting don't jive with what you wish to believe.
How dasterdly is this system, hailed by Alexander Hamilton, who believed government must take care of us, and to this day is sucoured by the likes of liberals. Is the IT legal? It cannot be if one accepts the basic tenets of our constitution.
Amendment 16: Income taxes
(This amendment was proposed on July 12, 1909, and ratified on Feb. 3, 1913.)
The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration.
In 1894, Congress passed an income tax law, but the Supreme Court declared it unconstitutional. This amendment authorized Congress to levy such a tax.
This amendment: HIGHWAY ROBBERY