No it doesn't.
Anyone knowing anything about epidemiological studies knows that every study finds differing percentages of risk for every risk factor. Just review heart disease stats for the last 75 years. You are making a fool of yourself using this weak tactic.
--Dr. Kopp
What are you talking about? Two studies, looking at the SAME thing(so the story says) concluded percentages that differed by 100%. How can two valid studies, looking at the same "linkage" vary by that much? Makes no sense.