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To: rdb3
I am unclear as to how men can be born (not only destined to die, physically, for Adam's sin) already having sinned and being thus condemned for actions they have not taken, when in Ezekiel 18, it states clearly that "The soul who sins is the one who will die." Unless this is a bizarre implication that a sinless man would not physically die (though Jesus did die, only to rise again), it seems that God is indicating through Ezekiel that "The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son" (Eze. 18:20). How, then is it possible that our sin nature (which indeed is inherited from our father, Adam) can be the same as our sins themselves? We even know that righteous men do not always outlive the unrighteous, so it cannot mean that wicked men die (again, physically) and the righteous live, for our inheritance from Adam is bodily death, due to sin.

Rather when we know that "there is no difference, for all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.(Rom. 3:23)" If all have sinned, it is by that SIN we will be condemned, and judged--why should we believe that we would be condemned for others' (Adam's or our fathers') sins when we all have our own?

Explain then, how can this be?

237 posted on 01/05/2002 8:27:55 AM PST by Great Wombat
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To: Great Wombat
Okay. Let's start by me asking this important question: Can holiness derive from the sinful?
240 posted on 01/05/2002 8:53:15 AM PST by rdb3
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