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To: the_doc
You are probably reading from a Protestant Bible and thus are including what Luther added to Romans 3:28, which is the word "alone". If you can read Latin, you'll see that it is not included in the Vulgate, but if not, you can see that it isn't in the English translation of the Vulgate; Douay-Rheims. The Epistle Of St. Paul The Apostle To The Romans 3:28 "For we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law." This is just one example of why Luther's doctrines are indeed bunk. He choose to edit Sacred Scripture to his liking, which was/is a violation of Sacred Scripture; The Apocalypse of St. John the Apostle 22:19. This doesn't even take into account his rejection of the Apocrypha. Imagine if Bill and Hill took the Bill of Rights and edited it to their liking. That's what Luther did with the Bible.
9 posted on 12/29/2001 7:03:40 PM PST by SMEDLEYBUTLER
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To: SMEDLEYBUTLER
I think you are just missing the obvious point of Romans 3:28. Even without Luther's "help" in the German translation, Romans 3:28 says exactly what I said it says.

It says a man is justified by faith APART FROM WORKS OF THE LAW. Since the issues in the context were faith and works, the Apostle Paul himself, not merely Luther, is saying that justification is by faith ALONE, i.e., APART FROM WORKS OF THE LAW.

So, Luther's ALONE idea is the idea of the Apostle's text. Luther apparently put the word "alone" in his German-language translation because he was irked at Rome for continually missing the point of the verse.

The word "alone" does not appear in the Greek text (and I don't even care about the Latin text), but the "alone" idea is certainly there.

And as I said in my post, John Calvin's famous explanation of justification is right on target. It readily explains the verse you cited from the Epistle of James. However, the Romanist doctrine of faith-plus-works doesn't have any way of explaining Romans 3:28!

And this is the bottom-line reason why consistent Protestants reject ECT.

11 posted on 12/29/2001 9:17:19 PM PST by the_doc
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To: SMEDLEYBUTLER
a Protestant Bible and thus are including what Luther added to Romans 3:28

Is this something you learned in Catholic School? There is not, to my knowledge, any Bible that adds the word "alone" to Romans 3:28. Would you please indicate the one you are familiar with that does?

I believe Martin Luther penned this word into his own, as a note.

Hank

53 posted on 01/01/2002 10:24:20 AM PST by Hank Kerchief
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To: SMEDLEYBUTLER
You are probably reading from a Protestant Bible and thus are including what Luther added to Romans 3:28, which is the word "alone". If you can read Latin, you'll see that it is not included in the Vulgate, but if not, you can see that it isn't in the English translation of the Vulgate; Douay-Rheims. The Epistle Of St. Paul The Apostle To The Romans 3:28 "For we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law."

What is a PROTESTANT Bible? If you can read Greek you will see that the word "choris" means WITHOUT, BY ITSELF, SEPARATE, or ALONE. By the way, that word is found in the Textus Receptus (Byzantine Greek text underlying most translations before the 19th Century) and also the Majority Texts which among others uses Textus Vaticanus (Aleph B). The "New Testament" was not written in "Latin" - Jerome was indeed a godly man, but he used the Greek text to write the Vulgate. There is no such thing as a "catholic" or "protestant" Bible when you are talking about ORIGINAL. Be careful what you say, there are may be scholars reading.
169 posted on 01/10/2002 7:55:38 AM PST by safisoft
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To: SMEDLEYBUTLER
Vulgate is a corrupt text. Go to the original Greek (as Luther did) for your most faithful translation. Vulgate contains errors that have gotten passed along. This may be one of them.
259 posted on 01/16/2002 4:27:02 AM PST by ncpastor
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