[JohnnyM]

I thought you were supporting SD, who is arguing the point of 40 days and 40 nights. I am asking the question then why do you believe it to be idiomatic or figurative? Why is the 40 days and nights of Jesus' temptation figurative? What makes you come to that conclusion? What makes you come to the conclusion that the 1000 year reign (which has a beginning and an end as described in Revelations) in Revelations is a figurative amount of time?? That is the question I am asking. Do you default to figurative interpretation when you read the Bible or any book for that matter??

JM

[trad_anglican]

Do you default to figurative interpretation when you read the Bible or any book for that matter??

No, I don't default to anything. To me, it is obviously figurative, as obvious as seventy times 7. When Paul says he received 40 stripes save one, I believe he really did get 39 lashes.