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To: JohnnyM
It is fairly simple to tell figurative language from literal or prophetic language.

Johnny M #31582

I don't think anyone would think the gospels were poetic and flambouyant in language. They were literal accounts.

Johnny M # 31588

that is obviously figurative language.

How does one tell “obviously figurative language” from “literal accounts?” You referred to the gospels as “literal accounts.” So they are literal accounts with figurative language?

And am I correct in understanding that “literal accounts” can contain “figurative language” but “prophetic language” is always literal?

31,596 posted on 03/04/2002 9:25:55 AM PST by trad_anglican
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To: trad_anglican
"And am I correct in understanding that “literal accounts” can contain “figurative language” but “prophetic language” is always literal?"

Kinda. I would say that Jesus literal said forgive them 70 times 7". Now Can I ask you what makes you think 40 days and 40 nights is figurative or that the 1000 year reign in Revelations is figurative. I will concede that some prophecy has figurative language in it. I don't think we will be seeing a dragon with 7 heads and 10 horns. But all prophecy where time periods are used are literal. There has never been a prophecy that says "x will happen in z years" and z did NOT occur at the prophecied time.

JM
31,600 posted on 03/04/2002 9:34:20 AM PST by JohnnyM
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