To: PayNoAttentionManBehindCurtain
Do you have a scripture reference for this, or is this oral tradition? It all follows logically from the concept of grace and what being "full of grace" means. This, of course, hinges on the Greek meaning of "kerichrom" of "kodachrome" or whatever word that is.
And here's a surprise, Protestants translate it differently than Catholics do! :-)
In short, if I am "full of grace" I can not have any sin within me. Not an iota, not a microgram. Being full of grace means that my soul is spotless, it is ready for immediate entrance into Heaven. The use of the term to refer to Mary by the Angel at the Annunciation is the Scriptural basis.
SD
To: SoothingDave
In short, if I am "full of grace" I can not have any sin within me. Not an iota, not a microgram. Being full of grace means that my soul is spotless, it is ready for immediate entrance into Heaven. Do you have a bible reference for this?:)
Becky
To: SoothingDave
It all follows logically from the concept of grace and what being "full of grace" means. This, of course, hinges on the Greek meaning of "kerichrom" of "kodachrome" or whatever word that is.
Why would it surprise me that you are as selective in choosing your Bible translations as you are in the teachings of the Early Church Fathers?
Do you deny the validity of the modern "Approved" NAB? You will not find "full of grace" in any modern translation. Why?
To: SoothingDave
It all follows logically from the concept of grace and what being "full of grace" means. We covered this over the weekend. It means to be an object of a gracious visitation. It has nothing to do with Mary's personal character; rather, it speaks of the grace (gift) of God! Get up to speed, partner! (like I should talk...)
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