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Fathers vs. the Evangelicals
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/god.htm ^ | vanit

Posted on 10/27/2011 4:05:56 PM PDT by rzman21

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To: CynicalBear

Paul posed two questions in 1 Corinthians 10 that can be answered yes or no. Christians answer yes, you appear to answer no since you are emphasizing “spiritual”.
Paul does not say the cup of blessing we bless is a SPIRITUAL sharing in the blood of Christ. he could have, but he did not, beacuse it is not spiritual.
Christians have believed Paul for 2,000 years.’
non-Christians, not so much.


101 posted on 10/29/2011 10:03:41 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
>> Paul posed two questions in 1 Corinthians 10<<

And earlier in 1 Corinthians 10 he specifically said what he was talking about.

1 Corinthians 10:3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

>> Paul does not say the cup of blessing we bless is a SPIRITUAL sharing in the blood of Christ.<<

Did you not read verse 3 and 4?

102 posted on 10/29/2011 10:12:51 AM PDT by CynicalBear
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism; CynicalBear
"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all SPIRITUAL blessings in heavenly places in Christ." Eph. 1:3.

That is what Paul's ministry was about: Circumcision made without hands: Spiritual. Baptism into the Body of Christ: Spiritual. Our state of being: seated in heavenly places in Christ: Spiritual. Our conversation being in heaven: Spiritual. Putting no faith in the outward man, but renewing the inward man day by day: Spiritual.

Why would Paul then go back to something that is after the outward man? Something to satisfy the flesh, but in no way satisfies the inward man? He wouldn't. In this age of the grace of God, where Christ is SEATED in the heavenlies and the believer is seated with Him, spiritually, how do you think He comes down into a wafer and literally becomes FLESH to you? He doesn't and 1 Cor. 10 does not tell you He does.

103 posted on 10/29/2011 10:23:18 AM PDT by smvoice (The Cross was NOT God's Plan B.)
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To: CynicalBear

why would someone want to twist Scriptures to try and make them say what Christians have rejected for 2,000 years?
who is behind this perversion?


104 posted on 10/29/2011 10:55:03 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
LOL, so baptism and the Lord’s Supper is not “essential”. i’ve heard it all now.

Were they essential to the thief on the cross??

105 posted on 10/29/2011 10:55:57 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism

Are you saying EVERYTHING the church fathers taught was infallible truth?


106 posted on 10/29/2011 10:57:33 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism; CynicalBear
ok, let’s test your thesis: Jesus said “This is My Body” The “RCC” believes Him.

Did the apostles actually eat Christ's body at the last supper? Did Christ eat it?

107 posted on 10/29/2011 11:00:36 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: RnMomof7

i would refer you to post #87 so you can educate yourself about what Christians have believed for 2,000 years.
if someone wants to reject the words of Jesus and 2,000 years of consistent apostolic, orthodox, biblical teaching, i can’t enlighten them.
the devil attacks the Church in many ways, one of them being those that quote Scripture . nothing new under the sun.
can you imagine the height of arrogance to presume no one understood the Lord’s Supper for 16 centuries?
simply amazing, but then again there are a whole lot of folks in Utah that agree that the Church went totally apostate after the Apostles died. great company to keep.


108 posted on 10/29/2011 11:09:04 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: RnMomof7

no


109 posted on 10/29/2011 11:09:55 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: RnMomof7

LOL, the thief on the cross died before the great commission was given and Peter taught baptism was for the remission of sins.
uh oh, another doctrine no one understood for 16 centuries.
all those apsostates at Nicea didn’t know what they were talking about, right?


110 posted on 10/29/2011 11:13:33 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism

So then the work of the church fathers is cherry picked to say what the Rc wants them to say


111 posted on 10/29/2011 11:17:12 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: RnMomof7

you are an interesting fellow.

just curious, is there any human being you consider a Christian that lived between 96ad and 1500ad that you would have worshipped with and shared the Lord’s Supper with?
anyone?
if yes, please name him or her.


112 posted on 10/29/2011 11:17:45 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
LOL, the thief on the cross died before the great commission was given and Peter taught baptism was for the remission of sins.

So it is your position that the means of salvation chanced ?

113 posted on 10/29/2011 11:22:54 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: RnMomof7

you cracked the code, i thought us papists were able to keep that to ourselves.


114 posted on 10/29/2011 11:24:12 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: RnMomof7

no, the means of salvation has always been the Body of Christ. Paul tells us where are baptized into Christ.

boy, the devil hates baptism and the Eucharist doesn’t he?


115 posted on 10/29/2011 11:27:20 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
>> why would someone want to twist Scriptures to try and make them say what Christians have rejected for 2,000 years?<<

When was this added that wasn’t there when 1 Corinthians was written in 59AD?

1 Corinthians 10:3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

>>who is behind this perversion?<<

My guess is the RCC. That was part of the problem when the translation from the original languages when they found that what the RCC was teaching was different than what the documents in the original languages said. That led to the Reformation.

116 posted on 10/29/2011 11:27:35 AM PDT by CynicalBear
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To: CynicalBear

CB, you are another interesting fellow.

want to take a crack at my questions in post #112?

any Christians between 95ad and 1500ad?


117 posted on 10/29/2011 11:30:29 AM PDT by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
If the ECF were not infallible it means that they were subject to error..indeed even heresy ... when one looks at their work you must look at it in totality and not pick and choose what you want to believe.. These were men struggling to understand the scriptures..to understand what was truth and what was error.. so as you read them you see heresy mixed with some understanding..

just curious, is there any human being you consider a Christian that lived between 96ad and 1500ad that you would have worshipped with and shared the Lord’s Supper with? anyone?

The NT church had no priests, no popes, no indulgences, no purgatory , no mass, no crosses, no icons, and in fact had no teaching on "transubstantiation" ... so if you REALLY want to point to the NT church you never look to Rome..

118 posted on 10/29/2011 11:30:47 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism

I ask again..did the apostles actually eat the flesh of christ at the last supper ...he did say “This is my body” ...was it? was it His actual flesh?


119 posted on 10/29/2011 11:32:26 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism; RnMomof7
>>can you imagine the height of arrogance to presume no one understood the Lord’s Supper for 16 centuries?<<

Or the horror when those who were tasked with translating from the original languages into English found that what the RCC was teaching was not consistent with the original language documents?

120 posted on 10/29/2011 11:34:03 AM PDT by CynicalBear
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