Posted on 10/28/2009 11:14:21 AM PDT by Daniel Gregg
Yes there is a word in Greek for week, but even though these scriptures are written in Greek the speakers spoke Hebrew. So this is the Greek translation of the Hebrew phrases and words used by the speakers. If the Jews marked the weeks according to the sabbath and it relations to it - it would make only perfect sense that they would use the word "Sabbath" in Greek if that is the word that they would have used in their Hebrew phraseology.
The word used in the resurrection passages in all the gospel's is the word "sabbatwn" which is translated as a plural form of Sabbath, not "sabbaton" (according to the Greek NT).
This is an excellent example of the lack of Greek knowledge that is being used here. The small "w" in Greek is the letter "Omega" in the small and not capital form (it makes an "o" sound). So the word should actually be transliterated "sabbaton". Sabbaton is the proper transliteration of sabbatwn. But, why confused ourselves with the facts? Sabbaton is neutral (in Greek), it can be either singular or plural, it has no position one way or the other. Again, we have to look at context of history, tradition, and actual use of language (and proper Greek) to truly get this meaning. The earliest believers understood Yeshua rose on the first day of the week we may want to also consider those traditions. But, again why confuse ourselves with facts.
If they were going to say first day of the week then why not just say it.
Let me ask you this. If the phrase "first day of the week" was not a part of your vocabulary what do you do? What if the way you render the days is by the first day of the sabbath, second day of the sabbath? Should we change our habits and traditions simply to make our generation feel better? My contention (and most biblical and Greek, and Rabbinic Scholars) is that the early believers rendered the days in relation to the Sabbath. If you can prove otherwise I would be happy to see it.
I misspoke above...
Sabbatwn is the transliteration of the Greek letters...sabbaton is the phonetic pronunciation of the Greek word. But they are the exact same word.
With love.
-Jay
Hello 007!
You made it aboard! Welcome to the ‘Free Republic’.
Best Regards!
What appears to have happened, is that the Church fell into apostasy about as speedily as ancient Israel ever did, in which case, God left them vulnerable to otherworldly influences which sought to make the Church anti-law and the Jews anti-Messiah. Neither apostate Christians nor apostate Jews had any interest in a Sabbath resurrection, and they conspired against it, because in a Sabbath resurrection the Torah and the Messiah are united in one argument.
Found at:
SABBATWN in the LXX and NT and related word studies
With your above explanation of why a Sabbath resurrection was lost to history.....I believe you nailed it!
“Again, we have to look at context of history, tradition, and actual use of language (and proper Greek) to truly get this meaning......What if the way you render the days is by the first day of the sabbath, second day of the Sabbath...
My contention (and most biblical and Greek, and Rabbinic Scholars) is that the early believers rendered the days in relation to the Sabbath. If you can prove otherwise I would be happy to see it.”
* This may not be the answer you are hoping for but it may be something different for you to consider;
The phrase ‘the first (ordinal) day of the week’ could have appeared as; ‘της πρώτο ημέρα του εβδομάδα’ in the original Koine Greek verses of; Matthew 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1, St. John 20:1,19; Acts 20:7, and 1 Corinthians 16:2 in the New Testament but does not appear anywhere in any way, shape or form.
The word ‘εβδομάδας’ in the Koine Greek for ‘week’ does appear in certain contexts of the Septuagint Old Testament (~ 270 B.C.) in; EX 34:22; LEV 23:15, 16, 25; NUM 28:26; DEUT 16:9, 10, 16; II CHRON 8:13, and DAN 9:24,25, 26, 27; 10:2, 3.
The phrase ‘the first (ordinal) of the sabbaths’ could have appeared as ‘της πρῶτον τῶν σαββάτων’in the original Koine Greek for the resurrection verses but does not for the most part.Only the verse of Mark 16:9 in the original Greek shows ‘πρώτη σάββατου’ transliterated as ‘protos sabbatou’ which is translated literally to mean ‘first (ordinal) sabbath (singular)’. Here in the long ending of Mark 16:9 – 20 regarded as an extension from a later time that does not exist in the earlier and older manuscripts.
** Here we have A.E. Knoch’s Concordant Version (1927) of the Gospel resurrection & meeting day verses; [Quotes Begin]
MTH 28:1 Now it is the evening of the sabbaths. At the lighting up into one of the sabbaths came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to behold the sepulcher.
MRK 16:2 And, very early in the morning on one of the sabbaths, they are coming to the tomb at the rising of the sun.
LUK 24:1 Now in the early depths of one of the sabbaths, they, and certain others together with them, came to the tomb, bringing the spices which they make ready.
JHN 20:1 Now, on one of the sabbaths, Miriam Magdalene is coming to the tomb in the morning, there being still darkness, and is observing the stone taken away from the door of the tomb.
JHN 20:18 It being, then, the evening of that day, one of the sabbaths, and the doors having been locked where the disciples were gathered together, because of fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst and is saying to them, “Peace to you!”
Acts 20:7 Now on one of the sabbaths, at our having gathered to break bread, Paul argued with them, being about to be off on the morrow. Besides, he prolonged the word unto midnight.
1 COR 16:2 On one of the sabbaths let each of you lay aside by himself in store that in which he should be prospered, that no collections may be occurring then, whenever I may come.
*Here are some quotes from A.E. Knoch’s Concordant Commentary (1968);
MTH28:1 “One of the sabbaths” is the only correct translation of the phrase usually rendered “the first day of the week”. The word first is not there. It is simply one, and is applied to the eleventh hour (Mt.20:12), which, in that case, was last, not first. The word day is not in the text at all. The word “week” is in the plural, and is precisely the same as the form in the preceding sentence. If it is rendered “sabbaths” there it must also be “sabbaths” here. So there is no recourse but to translate “one of the sabbaths.”
“The key to this expression lies in the law of the Firstfruits (Lev.23:9-14). Ending with the day before Pentecost there were seven sabbaths (Lev.23:15) from the day before the waving of the “sheaf”. These are referred to in the phrase “one of the sabbaths”. Every mention of this phrase places it between the Passover and Pentecost, (1Co.16:2 and Acts 20:1 and 6). And the other occurrences refer to our Lord’s resurrection (Mk.16:2; Lu.24:1; Jn.20:1-19). He was raised on a sabbath, not the first day of the week, which would be our Sunday.”
”His resurrection on the Sabbath is a token that His work was complete. Redemption is now a matter of entering into His stopping, not the beginning of a new week of toil and labor.” [Quotes End]
** Here the Koine Greek word ‘μιᾷ’ means ‘one’ and is cardinal in meaning.
In the resurrection verses we commonly find the Koine Greek phrase; ‘μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων’ which is transliterated ‘mia twn Sabbatwn’ and is translated to literally mean; ‘one (cardinal)of the Sabbaths’. As well, other close words can be found similarly within N.T. verses such as; Acts 20:7 : 1 Corinthians 16:2 and Colossians 2:16.
** The Biblical resurrection verses for those that display (mia twn Sabbatwn = one of Sabbaths) is shown as a partitive genitive case function where one Sabbath is taken in association to a larger group of similar Sabbaths.
Outside the resurrection verses the Koine Greek word ‘μιᾷ’ transliterated as ‘mia’ is found in other N.T. references such as; Mark 14:66 (one of the maids), and Luke 5:17; 17:22; 20:1. (one of the days) and Acts 21:7 (one day). You may check various Bible translations to confirm this.
Some folk will refer to earlier Hebrew sources as an attempt to thwart that Greek sources are inadequate or insufficient to the original intended meaning. Literary and linguist Experts claim there are often rare situations where ambiguity is prevalent in contexts hinging on more then one possible meaning. For an alternative description explaining 'a Sabbath resurrection from a Wednesday crucifixion of our Lord Jesus' please feel free to visit;
www.pmary65.wordpress.com
Best Regards – Pmary65
Hello Jay,
Has that “Torah observant Lutheran minister” given up the celebration of Christmas yet? Just wondering, especially since a clean break with paganism is one of the prohibitions of the Acts 15 Jerusalem Council (the minimum required for table fellowship with Jews).
If Sunday was the day of Resurrection, why would this not be the primary reason given for the switch from Sabbath to Sunday in Church history? Why were various reasons tossed out like “trial balloons” for the change to the “Venerable Day of the Sun” (as it was known), ......the primary reason being to establish Church authority in distinction from “all things Jewish.”
Even though Samuele Bacchiocchi believed in a Sunday resurrection, his research in “From Sabbath to Sunday” includes several smoking guns. Maybe he could only go so far in bucking the system and still get his book published, especially with a Vatican imprimitur on it!
Shalom,
Renah
Correction:
Poorly written sentence above. Sorry. Should say:
A clean break with paganism is required according to the 4 prohibitions of the Acts 15 Jerusalem Council.
Shalom,
Renah
LOL........that's not fair, Renah. Torah Observant Lutheran Minister? Somehow....don't these terms get in the way of each other?
Answer this for me: [Matthew 28:1] And on the eve of the “sabbaths”, at the dawn, toward the first of the “sabbaths”, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre. [Mark 16:2] and early in the morning of the first of the “sabbaths”, they come unto the sepulchre, at the rising of the sun. [Luke 4:16] And he came to Nazareth, where he hath been brought up, and he went in, according to his custom, on the “sabbath”-day, to the synagogue, and stood up to read; [Luke 24:1] And on the first of the “sabbaths”, at early dawn, they came to the tomb, bearing the spices they made ready, and certain others with them. [John 20:1] And on the first of the “sabbaths”, Mary the Magdalene doth come early (there being yet darkness) to the tomb, and she seeth the stone having been taken away out of the tomb. [John 20:19] It being, therefore, evening, on that day, the first of the “sabbaths”, and the doors having been shut where the disciples were assembled, through fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, and saith to them, ‘Peace to you; [Acts 13:14] and they having gone through from Perga, came to Antioch of Pisidia, and having gone into the synagogue on the “sabbath-day”, they sat down. [Acts 16:13] on the “sabbath”-day also we went forth outside of the city, by a river, where there used to be prayer, and having sat down, we were speaking to the women who came together. [Acts 20:7] And on the first of the week (”sabbath”), the disciples having been gathered together to break bread, Paul was discoursing to them, about to depart on the morrow, he was also continuing the discourse till midnight. [I Corinthians 16:2] on every first day of the week (”sabbath”), let each one of you lay by him, treasuring up whatever he may have prospered, that when I may come then collections may not be made; [Colossians 2:16] Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a feast, or of a new moon, or of “sabbaths”
These passages are from "Young's Literal Translation" and the question is: "Why did Mr. Young translate the word SABBATWN as SABBATHS"....and more importantly....precede it by the words "First of the"? And secondly.....why do the resurrection texts all use the Greek word SABBATWN.....and not SABBATON?
Here are the Greek passages for SABBATON:
Matt 12:5, Mark 2:27, Mark 2:27, Luke 23:54, Luke 23:56, John 5:9, John 5:10, John 5:18, John 9:14, John 9:16, Acts 13:27, Acts 13:42, Acts 15:21, Acts 18:4 What is the difference? Some folks say there is no difference. If so......why doesn't the Greek says the same word throughout?
All of these passages say SABBATOU: Matt 12:8, Mark 2:28, Mark 6:2, Mark 16:1, Mark 16:9, Luke 6:5, Luke 13:14, Luke 13:16, Luke 14:5, Luke 18:12, John 19:31, Acts 1:12 Any ideas?
How about these: Matt 12:2, Matt 24:20, Luke 6:1, Luke 6:6, Luke 6:7, Luke 13:14, Luke 13:15, Luke 14:1, Luke 14:3, John 5:16, John 7:22, John 7:23, John 7:23, John 19:31, Acts 13:44 They all say SABBATW. Why is that?
Go ahead and explain to everyone if you like why Robert Young says in 'Young's Literal Translation' ;
Acts 20:7 "And on the first of the week"
1 Corinthians 16:2 "on every first day of the week"
...when he saw ‘μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων’ in the original Koine Greek for those verses.
Just how thorough and 'Literal' is his text anyway?
- Best Regards
Diego, please spell it out to me how you see Sabbatwn as “special sabbath” in all cases of its use and not just a reference to the plural. I looked up the Scriptures Steven Avery listed at CARM and could see your point in most cases, but not all. I am having trouble grasping this. Or have you modified your position?
Thanks for your help.
Shalom,
Renah
I like to quote frequently from "Young's Literal Translation" as it, for the most part.....does an adequate job. It is much more trustworthy than the King James which is rife with error.....saturated with Martin Lutherisms.
But.....even Young's is tainted with man's imperfect slant and I will give you a good example. It deals with [Acts 20:7] and [I Corinthians 16:2].
Robert Young was a Scottish Presbyterian, lay Theologian who lived in the 19th century. He, of course, had been indoctrinated at a young age to believe in the nonsense of a Sunday morning resurrection.....and this doctrine was indeed one of the cornerstones of Protestant theology during this era. It still is! Consequently, even Mr. Young, in his excellent work, allows this false doctrine to influence what he wrote. He is also the author of "Young's Analytical Concordance".
The Greek: [Acts 20:7] en de th mia twn sabbatwn sunhgmenwn twn maqhtwn tou klasai arton o pauloV dielegeto autoiV mellwn exienai th epaurion pareteinen te ton logon mecri mesonuktiou
The English (Young's) And on the first of the week, the disciples having been gathered together to break bread, Paul was discoursing to them, about to depart on the morrow, he was also continuing the discourse till midnight.
The Greek: [I Corinthians 16:2] kata mian sabbatwn ekastoV umwn par eautw tiqetw qhsaurizwn o ti an euodwtai ina mh otan elqw tote logiai ginwntai
The English (Young's) on every first day of the week, let each one of you lay by him, treasuring up whatever he may have prospered, that when I may come then collections may not be made.
Now, if you would like to refer back to post #67 for the English in Young's.....I'll give you the Greek for all the resurrection verses.
[Matthew 28:1] oye de sabbatwn th epifwskoush eiV mian sabbatwn hlqen maria h magdalhnh kai h allh maria qewrhsai ton tafon
[Mark 16:2] kai lian prwi ths mias sabbatwn ercontai epi to mnhmeion anateilantoV tou hliou
[Luke 24:1] th de mia twn sabbatwn orqrou baqeos hlqon epi to mnhma ferousai a htoimasan arwmata kai tines sun autais
[John 20:1] th de mia twn sabbatwn maria h magdalhnh ercetai prwi skotiaV eti oushV eiV to mnhmeion kai blepei ton liqon hrmenon ek tou mnhmeiou
[John 20:19] oushV oun oyiaV th hmera ekeinh th mia twn sabbatwn kai twn qurwn kekleismenwn opou hsan oi maqhtai sunhgmenoi dia ton fobon twn ioudaiwn hlqen o ihsouV kai esth eiV to meson kai legei autoiV eirhnh umin
Now....you will notice that Mr. Young translates these two passages differently (Acts & Corinthians) than he does in Matthew, Mark, Luke & John. Why? They are the same exact words, aren't they? Agreed.....Acts, Luke and the two Johns are MIA TWN SABBATWN and Corinthians and Matthew are MIAS SABBATWN.....but he still says something about the "first day of the week" in Acts and Corinthians.....but calls it the "first of the Sabbaths" in the gospels.
Robert Young, in his life long tradition of Sunday keeping....a cornerstone of Scottish Presbyterianism, just could not bring himself to call what he thought were Sunday religious observances being celebrated by the Apostles..... the Sabbath. He knew that the resurrection verses could not be translated accurately any other way.....but his Sunday keeping indoctrination prevented him from translating the same identical words in Acts and Corinthians correctly, fearing it would probably disprove any idea of something special about Sunday. This must have been an agonizing ordeal for him....to remain true to his heritage....or translate correctly what was before him......written in Greek.
If he had accurately translated those passages (Acts and Corinthians) a firestorm of protest would have erupted and his publications would probably have never received the publicity they have come to be known for. So......who knows????????
I'll continue with more later on............
Additional Considerations on μια των σαββατων.
http://www.torahtimes.org/Additional%20Considerations.html
It takes up the issue of the feminine gender of the Hebrew word, and the possible construtio ad sensum of the Greek, also examples from Greek showing that "one of the sabbaths" follows a regular literal pattern.
They would have written instead, the word for day (HEMERA), which they did not. They would have also used the Greek word (PROTO) which means "First"....but they didn't. The word that is claimed to mean "First" in all of the resurrection texts is (MIA) and it appears 80 times in the New Testament. Seven times the word MIA is translated as "First". This can be seen as a private interpretation as this word is always translated as "one"......except for these seven resurrection verses which the Sunday Keepers have forced upon us through their translations.
The Septuagint: [Leviticus 23:15] kai ariqmhsete umeis apo ths epaurion twn sabbatwn apo ths hmeras hs an prosenegkhte to dragma tou epiqematos epta ebdomadas oloklhrous Here we have both words (SABBATWN/EBDOMADAS) in one passage. Let's look at the translation.
The Jewish Publication Society Bible: [Leviticus 23:15] And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the day of rest, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the waving; seven weeks shall there be complete.
What kind of Sabbath is Leviticus referring to? A special Sabbath....the First Sabbath of Unleavened Bread. This is what John calls it: [John 19:31] The Jews, therefore, that the bodies might not remain on the cross on the sabbath, since it was the preparation, (for that sabbath day was a great one,) asked of Pilate that their legs may be broken, and they taken away. The KJV calls it a "High Day". The Greek calls it a SABBATW: oi oun ioudaioi ina mh meinh epi tou staurou ta swmata en tw sabbatw epei paraskeuh hn hn gar megalh h hmera ekeinou tou sabbatou hrwthsan ton pilaton ina kateagwsin autwn ta skelh kai arqwsin
More to follow.........
(7676) shabbath/shab-bawth': intensive from 'shabath' (7673); intermission, i.e (specifically) the Sabbath:--(+ every) sabbath.
(7677) shabbathown/shab-baw-thone': from 'shabbath' (7676); a sabbatism or special holiday:--rest, sabbath.-
The Hebrew for Sabbath is Shabbath and has been translated into Greek as SABBATON. The word Shabbath in the Old Testament appears as follows: Exo 16:23, Exo 16:25, Exo 16:26, Exo 16:29, Exo 20:8, Exo 20:10, Exo 20:11, Exo 31:14, Exo 31:15, Exo 31:15, Exo 31:16, Exo 31:16, Exo 35:2, Exo 35:3, Lev 16:31, Lev 23:3, Lev 23:3, Lev 23:11, Lev 23:15, Lev 23:16, Lev 23:32, Lev 23:32, Lev 24:8, Lev 25:2, Lev 25:4, Lev 25:4, Lev 25:6, Num 15:32, Num 28:9, Num 28:10, Deu 5:12, Deu 5:14, Deu 5:15, 2 Ki 4:23, 2 Ki 11:5, 2 Ki 11:7, 2 Ki 11:9, 2 Ki 11:9, 2 Ki 16:18, 1 Chr 9:32, 2 Chr 23:4, 2 Chr 23:8, 2 Chr 23:8, Neh 9:14, Neh 10:31, Neh 10:31, Neh 13:15, Neh 13:15, Neh 13:16, Neh 13:17, Neh 13:18, Neh 13:19, Neh 13:19, Neh 13:19, Neh 13:21, Neh 13:22, Psa 92:1, Isa 56:2, Isa 56:6, Isa 58:13, Isa 58:13, Isa 66:23, Jer 17:21, Jer 17:22, Jer 17:22, Jer 17:24, Jer 17:24, Jer 17:27, Jer 17:27, Eze 46:1, Eze 46:4, Eze 46:12, Amos 8:5
On the other hand the word for "Special Sabbath" is Shabbathone and can be found here: Lev 23:24, Lev 23:39 (twice)
Let's look at these two passages:
[Leviticus 23:24] Speak unto the children of Israel, saying: In the seventh month, in the first day of the month, shall be a solemn rest unto you, a memorial proclaimed with the blast of horns, a holy convocation. And the Hebrew transliterated: dabēr ’el-bənê yiśərā’ēl lē’mōr baḥōḏeš haššəḇî‘î bə’eḥāḏ laḥōḏeš yihəyeh lāḵem šabāṯwōn ziḵərwōn tərû‘â miqərā’-qōḏeš:
[Leviticus 23:39] Howbeit on the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruits of the land, ye shall keep the feast of HaShem seven days; on the first day shall be a solemn rest, and on the eighth day shall be a solemn rest. And the Hebrew transliterated: ’aḵə baḥămiššâ ‘āśār ywōm laḥōḏeš haššəḇî‘î bə’āsəpəḵem ’eṯ-təḇû’aṯ hā’āreṣ tāḥōgû ’eṯ-ḥaḡ-yəhwâ šiḇə‘aṯ yāmîm bayywōm hāri’šwōn šabāṯwōn ûḇayywōm haššəmînî šabāṯwōn:
Shabbathone can also be found here: Exo 16:23(One of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost to be counted as later outlined in [Leviticus 23:15]), Exo 31:15(lists both), Exo 35:2(lists both), Lev 16:31(Atonement), Lev 23:3(lists both), Lev 23:32(Atonement), Lev 25:4(Sabbatical Year), Lev 25:5(Sabbatical Year) Where both Shabbath and Shabbathone are found it is referred to as a Sabbath of rest.
Shabbathone is designated a Special Sabbath according to the above passages and each time it is duplicated it is because it has been referred to as Sabbath of "Rest" also....a special Sabbath as it were.
When the writers of the New Testament authored the Gospels and the books of Acts, Corinthians and Colossians (where SABBATWN occurs) they were familiar with the Hebrew terminology of Shabbathone meaning a "set apart day"....a special Sabbath. They also knew that an ordinary seventh day Sabbath was called a Shabbath (SABBATON). When the resurrection verses were penned the author's designated these Sabbath days as SABBATWN because the resurrection occurred on the first Sabbath between Passover and Pentecost......one of the special Sabbaths that the Hebrews were to observe and count [Leviticus 23:15]. The other instance of SABBATWN in the New Testament refers to to God's annual feast days [Colossians 2:16] mh oun tiV umaV krinetw en brwsei h en posei h en merei eorthV h noumhnias h sabbatwn. And the English: Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a feast, or of a new moon, or of sabbaths.
To head off some possibl1e questions .......the passages that list SABBATWN in Acts and Corinthians are also speaking of "one of the Sabbaths" between Passover and Pentecost.....as well.
The major point to be made is that in every resurrection text the word used is the Hebrew "Shabbathone" carried over into it's Greek designation of SABBATWN, which by definition would mean a "Special Sabbath". The official SABBATWN are "Trumpets, Atonement, and the first and last days of Tabernacles." Over time, all important annually recognized Shabbaths that were not just weekly Sabbaths came to be known as Shabbathone....and this included the seven counted weekly Sabbaths between Passover and Penetcost and they became known by the Greek word SABBATWN.
“If the phrase "first day of the week" was not a part of your vocabulary what do you do? What if the way you render the days is by the first day of the sabbath, second day of the sabbath?”
Diego1618 said in post # 67;
“These passages are from "Young's Literal Translation" and the question is: "Why did Mr. Young translate the word SABBATWN as SABBATHS"....and more importantly....precede it by the words "First of the…"
* Robert Young shows Sabbaths (‘σαββατων’) as plural in ‘Young’s Literal Translation’ and his ‘Analytical Concordance to the Holy Bible’ for the resurrection verses where he believed and explained 2 Sabbaths (Annual Nisan 15th & weekly Saturday) coinciding on the same intermediate time between the crucifixion and resurrection of our Lord.
He believed in a Friday Nisan 14th crucifixion and a Sunday Nisan 16th (first fruits / LEV 23:11) resurrection.
His understanding of theology underlies him to say ‘First’ rationalizing Sunday as the next day after the ‘Sabbaths’ (that coincided together). The sense of understanding here is that the ‘First Day’ (Sunday) was ablative from the Sabbaths. This seems to be the common thread between the traditional Biblical interpreters of the Greek. They believe that ‘the first of Sabbaths’ and Sunday are the same identical day. Also the phrase from LEV 23:15 have a sense in the word ‘Sabbaths’ as being understood to mean ‘weeks’.
This is the real reason why Robert Young and mainstream theologians justify in their logic that the ‘first of Sabbaths’ must mean ‘the first day of the week’. This too may have been the understanding of theologians during the times at the Council of Nicaea (~325 A.D.) carried over to the Edict of Laodicea (~367 A.D.) where the instilled canon law # 29 says that Christians ‘must work on the Sabbath’. This understanding of theology allowed ‘Constantine the Great’ to force unification on Christians and Pagans alike on the same ground of ‘Sun Day’ worship. Constantine took advantage of an opportunity to solidify a solution for tolerance and harmony between the general masses of religions within his empire.
However, mainstream Christian theologians alike to Robert Young may have found difficulties in justifying logic for scriptures pertaining to the ‘Sign of Jonah’ (3 days & 3 nights) or the phrase ‘after three days’ in order to fit their ‘post crucifixion – resurrection time frame.
In their theological understanding, the ‘Sign of Jonah’ may have been written off merely as metaphorical or a shear simple shallow expression of a idiomatic phrase.
It may be only to the remaining so-called private modern day interpreters of theology where the words of Jesus ‘the only sign given’ have any deep merit to investigate literally in full analytical detail with profound implications there of. We can see that such a process runs deep through the minds of those who are convicted to lay it all out on the line. We who firmly believe reprehensively ‘in the only sign given’ as stated directly by Jesus himself. (MTH 16:4 : LUK 11:29, 30).
Best Regard – Pmary65
I consider this article a massive break through in showing that the traditionalist position is based entirely on Church tradition and has no inherent support in Greek grammar or syntax. I was afraid to make the argument in the past due to a few loose technical details. Wheel and axel finally went together and now the paper flies:
and proving that Μια των Σαββατων
means "first of the Sabbaths"
Daniel Gregg
Abstract: I use the various phrases for "first day of unleavens" which is grammatically the same as "first of the sabbaths" to show that this should be the grammatical and syntactical normal sense.
and proving that Μια των Σαββατων
means "first of the Sabbaths"
Daniel Gregg
Hi Diego,
But what about some of the sabbatwn verses that do not seem to refer to a “special sabbath”? These are the verses Avery mentioned;
Matthew - 12:2 24:20
Luke - 6:1 6:6 6:7 13:15 14:1 14:3
John - 5:16 7:22 7:23
Acts - 13:44
I could not understand “special sabbath” in all of them. Should we understand all these sabbaths to be “counting to Shavuot” sabbaths or some other kind of special sabbath?
Shalom,
Renah
I can only speak so far for the traditionalists but it seems to me that they understand the Koine Greek word ‘οωέ’ (MTH 28:1) as a preposition that modifies the remainder of the sentence. Thus ‘οωέ’ is interpreted as ‘late’ being an ‘adverb’ in a post sense where it has an effect to mean ‘after’ or at the ‘end of the Sabbath(s)’ to which their logic on the resurrection moment is positioned together by the reciprocation of grammar and theology as they have understood it.
As well, it appears to me in Daniel Gregg's hypothesis that he has presented the word ‘οωέ’ (MTH 28:1) as a preposition that modifies the remainder of the sentence. There ‘οωέ’ is interpreted and chosen as ‘later’ being an ‘adjective’ where it has a sense to mean ’near the end or at the closing of the Sabbaths’. There a different take on the resurrection moment is positioned together by the reciprocation of grammar and theology as he has understood it.
However, Matthew 28:1 is commonly valued for the most part by scholars who understand it as a key resurrection verse that determines the chronology behind all other resurrection verses as they appear in the New Testament elsewhere.
Best Regards – Pmary65
Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary
The Later Sabbath After the Passover Sabbath
"Matthew 28:1 And the later of the Sabbaths, as it began to dawn on the first of the Sabbaths, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulcher" (DLT: torahtimes.org).
later...Sabbath: There were two Sabbaths in Passover week. The annual Passover Sabbath was on Thursday, Nisan 15, and this was followed by the weekly Sabbath on Nisan 17. The "later of the Sabbaths' refers to the weekly Sabbath. "Later" is used in the sense of "former" and "later". The former Sabbath was the annual Sabbath. The later Sabbath was the weekly Sabbath.
first...Sabbath: The weekly Sabbath was also called the "first of the Sabbaths" on account of Leviticus 23:15, where instructions are given to count seven Sabbaths after the annual Passover Sabbath".
later: Οψε. The proper definition of this word when used with the genitive case is later. "The genitive with Οψε and μετ ολιγον have become associated in meaning with υστερον τουτων [later of these], προτερον τουτων [former of these]" (BLASS, 164.4, pg. 91, A Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature). Thayer's Lexicon observes concerning the errant rendering "after": "but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after." (DLC: torahtimes.org)1. Mt. 28:1, Moulton, Robertson, and likely B-D-F justify the pragmatic sense "after" in Mat. 28:1 with the ablative. Moulton describes it best, "This use of οψε = after involves an ablative gen., "late from." (pg. 72, Prolegomena).
2. Robertson, pg. 646, "It is a point, for exegesis, not for grammar, to decide." The reason Roberston must say this is that it depends on the interpretation of the following gentive, and not on the lexical meaning of οψε, whose meaning is implicitly conceeded by the use of this argument NOT to be "after", and thus agrees with the main thesis of the editorial objection in Thayer's Lexicon. As for the further claim of the editor that the ablative is not in fact used in examples provided, the jury is still out until the source contexts of those examples can be rechecked.
3. Daniel B. Wallace, "For example, the genitive of separation [i.e. ablative], a common idiom in the Attic dialect, is rare in the Koine. It has been replaced, by and large, by απο + genitive" (pg. 163, Basics). Απο, of course, means "from".
4. Therefore, "Later [from]" where "from" is the interpretation is a rare interpretation in Koine, and the Koine normally inserts the word απο to mean "from" in a case like this.
5. B-D-F allows οψε in the sense of υστερον τουτων [= later of these]
6. For οψε BDAG provides an example "later than", but as we have seen the "than" is merely a dynamic equivalent gloss for the ablative "from" interpretation. Therefore, we merely need to interpret the genitive the normal way, "Later of the Sabbaths" in Mt. 28:1 to arrive at the intelligible sense that it means the second of two sabbaths, i.e. the weekly Sabbath after Passover.
7. Where Moulton and B-D-F (pg. 72) translates οψε των Τρωικων "at a late [stage] in the Trojan war" they are being less than accurate, since the Greek says "Trojan wars" in the plural. So it would be "later of the Trojan wars" or "late in the Trojan wars"; it would be impossible to distinguish "late in" here from "later of".
8. Liddell and Scott qualify the sense "after" with "perh." = "perhaps" showing they are less than certain.
9. Liddell and Scott supply an example οψιγενης = later born, "later-born, i.e. younger", with notice that the prefix form, οψι, is from οψε.
10. Moulton vol. III regarding οψε speculates, "A Latinism? Just After," (Nigel Turner) regarding Mt. 28:1.
11. Regardless of the personal opinion of any of these men, the evidence presented by them supports the sense "later of sabbaths".
12. The following concordance shows that consistent sense can be made with "later":
Gen 24:11 toward a later time, when the women fetch
Exo 30:8 And when Aaron shall light the lamps later,
Isa 5:11 who linger till later, for wine will inflame them
Jer 2:23 And know what you did later. Her voice cried
Mat 28:1 And the later of the sabbaths, at dawning for
Mar 11:19 And when later it became, he was going
Mar 13:35 cometh, either later, or at midnight, or at
Ant 16.218 he went at the later hour to refresh himself
Bdag 3.1 later of the hour decided on; from?
Bdag 3.2 he arrived later of/in/from? the mysteries;
Bdag 3.3 later of/in/from? these
Bdag 3.4 later of/in the fight
Blass 164.4a later of/in the Trojan wars
Blass 164.4b at a later hour
Blass 164.4c later of/in/from? the games
Thay 471 later of/in/from? the times of the king
13. Notice "from?" in some examples. This is because those examples actually have to be checked in the original source again to see if the ablative is required to make sense of the context.
14. Regardless of the personal opinion of these men, they show uncertainty and confusion over the pragmatic sense "after", and though a bit uncareful in their statements clearly appear to reject the lexical sense "after" leaving it to the lexical sense + ablative to yield that pragmatic sense.
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Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary: (http://www.torahtimes.org/translation/mat2801.html)
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Matthew - 12:2 24:20 Luke - 6:1 6:6 6:7 13:15 14:1 14:3 John - 5:16 7:22 7:23 Acts - 13:44
Well....these verses are actually rendered in the Greek as SABBATW.....not SABBATWN. But let's look at them anyway.
[Matthew 12:1-2] 1 At that time did Jesus go on the sabbaths through the corn, and his disciples were hungry, and they began to pluck ears, and to eat, 2 and the Pharisees having seen, said to him, 'Lo, thy disciples do that which it is not lawful to do on a sabbath.
The word in verse 1 is SABBASIN. The word in verse 2 is SABBATW. This passage lines up with [Luke 6:1-2] that says: 1 And it came to pass, on the second-first sabbath, as he is going through the corn fields, that his disciples were plucking the ears, and were eating, rubbing with the hands, 2 and certain of the Pharisees said to them, 'Why do ye that which is not lawful to do on the sabbaths?
Why does Luke call it "the second first Sabbath"? For your perusal
Luke makes the distinction of this Sabbath being somehow special.....just by the simple fact he calls it the "Second first Sabbath." Luke also tells us in verse 6-7 that another event occurred on another SABBATW, thereby bringing these two events together as happening on the same kind of Sabbath....a special Sabbath as it were. That event, of course .......being the healing of a withered hand in full view of the Pharisees.
Julian Morgenstern, past President of Hebrew University: Quote.........Seven Sabbaths were to be counted from the Feast of First fruits or Passover. Consequently, these became known as "First Sabbath", "Second Sabbath" etc. down to the seventh. This practice continued in Galilee til the time of Christ or the common era. It is still observed by some groups in Palestine today. Thus, there was an annual date known as "First Sabbath" just after Passover. (page 230, "The Life of Christ in Stereo")
So, we have tied in [Matthew 12:2][Luke 6:1; 6:6; 6:7; 13:14; & 13:15] as all happening on the same type of SABBATW (probably one of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost) and how does the scripture identify a SABBATW? [John 19:31] oi oun ioudaioi ina mh meinh epi tou staurou ta swmata en tw sabbatw epei paraskeuh hn hn gar megalh h hmera ekeinou tou sabbatou hrwthsan ton pilaton ina kateagwsin autwn ta skelh kai arqwsin And the translation: The Jews, therefore, that the bodies might not remain on the cross on the sabbath(SABBATW), since it was the preparation, (for that sabbath day(SABBATOU) was a great one,) asked of Pilate that their legs may be broken, and they taken away.
That SABBATW was to be the first Sabbath of Unleavened Bread [Leviticus 23:6]....a special Sabbath.....like the ones counted between Passover and Pentecost [Leviticus 23:15].
[Luke 14:1-3] 1 And it came to pass, on his going into the house of a certain one of the chiefs of the Pharisees, on a sabbath(SABBATW), to eat bread, that they were watching him, 2 and lo, there was a certain dropsical man before him; 3 and Jesus answering spake to the lawyers and Pharisees, saying, 'Is it lawful on the sabbath(SABBATW) day to heal?' 4 and they were silent, and having taken hold of him, he healed him, and let him go; 5 and answering them he said, 'Of which of you shall an ass or ox fall into a pit, and he will not immediately draw it up on the sabbath(SABBATOU) day?' 6 and they were not able to answer him again unto these things. These two verses again show The Lord healing on a special Sabbath day in full view of the Pharisees. It's almost as if He is daring them to object.
[Mark 3:2] also gives an example of The Lord healing on a Sabbath: kai parethroun auton ei toiV sabbasin qerapeusei auton ina kathgorhswsin autou In this case it is the same word as we found in [Matthew 12:1] which was the same day as [Matthew 12:2].....a SABBATW, and is obviously the same event as we find in [Luke 6:6-7]....also identified as a SABBATW. And, as indicated by the story thread.....the actual event was on the "Second First Sabbath" [Luke 6:1].....evidently a special Sabbath.
On to John..........[John 5:16] and because of this were the Jews persecuting Jesus, and seeking to kill him, because these things he was doing on a sabbath(SABBATW). Let's backtrack a bit in this chapter to see the time line: Verses 1-15 1 After these things there was a feast of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem, 2 and there is in Jerusalem by the sheep -gate a pool that is called in Hebrew Bethesda, having five porches, 3 in these were lying a great multitude of the ailing, blind, lame, withered, waiting for the moving of the water, 4 for a messenger at a set time was going down in the pool, and was troubling the water, the first then having gone in after the troubling of the water, became whole of whatever sickness he was held. 5 and there was a certain man there being in ailment thirty and eight years, 6 him Jesus having seen lying, and having known that he is already a long time, he saith to him, 'Dost thou wish to become whole?' 7 The ailing man answered him, 'Sir, I have no man, that, when the water may be troubled, he may put me into the pool, and while I am coming, another doth go down before me.' 8 Jesus saith to him, 'Rise, take up thy couch, and be walking;' 9 and immediately the man became whole, and he took up his couch, and was walking, and it was a sabbath on that day, 10 the Jews then said to him that hath been healed, 'It is a sabbath; it is not lawful to thee to take up the couch.' 11 He answered them, 'He who made me whole -- that one said to me, Take up thy couch, and be walking;' 12 they questioned him, then, 'Who is the man who is saying to thee, Take up thy couch and be walking?' 13 But he that was healed had not known who he is, for Jesus did move away, a multitude being in the place. 14 After these things, Jesus findeth him in the temple, and said to him, 'Lo, thou hast become whole; sin no more, lest something worse may happen to thee.' 15 The man went away, and told the Jews that it is Jesus who made him whole,
He was in Jerusalem for a Feast which means this SABBATW was either the Feast day itself......or perhaps one of the seven SABBATW between Passover and Pentecost. Nevertheless, the timing gives credence to the definitive Greek SABBATW.
[John 7:22-23] Again.....let's backtrack: 14 And it being now the middle of the feast, Jesus went up to the temple, and he was teaching, 15 and the Jews were wondering, saying, 'How hath this one known letters -- not having learned?' 16 Jesus answered them and said, 'My teaching is not mine, but His who sent me; 17 if any one may will to do His will, he shall know concerning the teaching, whether it is of God, or -- I do speak from myself. 18 'He who is speaking from himself his own glory doth seek, but he who is seeking the glory of him who sent him, this one is true, and unrighteousness is not in him; 19 hath not Moses given you the law? and none of you doth the law; why me do ye seek to kill?' 20 The multitude answered and said, 'Thou hast a demon, who doth seek to kill thee?' 21 Jesus answered and said to them, 'One work I did, and ye all wonder, 22 because of this, Moses hath given you the circumcision -- not that it is of Moses, but of the fathers -- and on a sabbath(SABBATW) ye circumcise a man; 23 if a man doth receive circumcision on a sabbath(SABBATW) that the law of Moses may not be broken, are ye wroth with me that I made a man all whole on a sabbath(SABBATW)? 24 judge not according to appearance, but the righteous judgment judge.
[Acts 13:44] And on the coming sabbath(SABBATW), almost all the city was gathered together to hear the word of God. We should also backtrack here: [Acts 13:13-14] anacqenteV de apo thV pafou oi peri ton paulon hlqon eiV perghn thV pamfuliaV iwannhV de apocwrhsaV ap autwn upestreyen eiV ierosoluma autoi de dielqonteV apo thV perghV paregenonto eiV antioceian ths pisidias kai eiselqontes eiV thn sunagwghn th hmera twn sabbatwn ekaqisan And the English: 13 And those about Paul having set sail from Paphos, came to Perga of Pamphylia, and John having departed from them, did turn back to Jerusalem, 14 and they having gone through from Perga, came to Antioch of Pisidia, and having gone into the synagogue on the sabbath-day, they sat down,
The Greek shows this word SABBATWN as the same word used in all the resurrection passages as well as [Acts 20:7] and [I Corinthians 16:2], both of which have been shown to be Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost. Paul is in Antioch during a Feast and as verse 44 shows.....the next Sabbath was indicated to be a SABBATW so it was most likely one of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost......a special Sabbath.
Now.....the last one of your inquiry [Matthew 24:20] and pray ye that your flight may not be in winter, nor on a sabbath(SABBATW); This one.....I cannot explain. I can only assume that it means the same as the others.
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