Posted on 08/15/2004 10:12:22 PM PDT by missyme
Namely parity between the people and the State.
There is a reason that the French Revolution, which based its principles on "reason," devolved into a bloody tyranny, while the American Revolution based on God-given rights produced George Washington.
No, that failed because they didn't have a game plan and decided to radically transform their society based on their imperfect ideals.
Therefore, they do not endow us with inalienable rights. The true God of the Bible does recognize such sanctity and thus can be referred to as the font of our rights, as in the Declaration of Independence.
The primary feature of "inalienable rights" is their conspicious absence throughout most of human history.
Can you find me the part in the Bible where God says: "In Suits at common law, where the value in controversy shall exceed twenty dollars, the right of trial by jury shall be preserved, and no fact tried by a jury, shall be otherwise re-examined in any Court of the United States, than according to the rules of the common law. "
Um... why would I avoid Christianity when I was raised in a Jewish home?
My mom WAS Catholic...they got that wrong in the article. She converted to Judaism before she married my father.
So... if you want to accuse me of "avoiding" a mainstream religion, at least get it right. My family is Jewish, not Christian. ;)
Xairete,
Kyrene
A mead-induced bloodbath is usually the right solution to any problem.
A right to trial and a right to face accusers can be found in OT commands regarding the trial of murderers.
Note: this topic is from 8/15/2004. Thanks missyme.
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