I must say the specifics given here are completely different that what I've read before, and, if true, has me supporting the homeowner.
However, if this is true "The fact is there is nothing in the homeowners documents that say where or when and state law prohibits them from saying any such thing.", why did the homeowner continue to lose in court?
Anybody up on the specifics of this case?
Who gives a damn about the anti American homeowners association. I don't care what their fascist by-laws state, keep the flag waving...