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To: general_re
Everybody has a logical argument, is the problem - the arguments of Handgun Control, Inc. follow perfectly logically from their premises, if you accept those premises to begin with. They feel that the exchange of less personal freedom for less risk of gun violence is a worthwhile trade-off; you feel that the exchange of more freedom for a greater risk of gun violence is a worthwhile trade.

No, that's not it at all. Yes, of course, I personally prefer the freedom-over-security view, but that has nothing to do with the constitutional argument. When I said "applying logic", I didn't mean logic in an abstract sense; I meant using logic as a tool for getting further meaning out of the words contained in the Constitution.

Let's look at your earlier statement again: "The language of the Constitution is pretty clear that we can't forbid all types of weapon in the hands of the citizenry, and common sense tells us that we can't allow all types of weapons to be available to the citizenry." So in other words, we should follow the language of the document to its fullest unless "common sense" dictates otherwise. So the question we're left with is, Does common sense require the federal government to be the one limiting the possession of extreme weapons? The answer, as I think we can both agree, is no, since the states are competent to legislate in such matters.

Fine, but the problem is that nothing in the Constitution explicitly states that anyone has the power to act in service of what we both recognize is common sense. You can, I suppose, point to the Tenth Amendement and claim that it grants the states the power to restrict those freedoms. I can equally well point to the Ninth and say that I have the right to be free of state interference in this matter, and point also to the absolute language of the Second in support of that, so hands off my nuke, Mr. County Sheriff. And then where does that leave us?

That leaves us with the question of whether the Bill of Rights applies only to the federal government, or to the states. Leaving aside (for the moment) the question of how the 14th amendment impacts upon that question, there neither is nor has been any dispute in legal circles that prior to the 14th amendment, the BOR applied only to the federal government. In short, we know it for a fact.

So then you could say that leaves us with the question of what to do with the 14th amendment - which of course, I'm happy to do if you like, but it would take longer as it's a bit more complicated. But my point here is to illustrate that we can objectively know what the Constitution says, even when doing involves a little bit of work.

Judicial rhetoric aside, the courts have been involved in political issues from the beginning, and they always will be. They like to pretend that they're apolitical, and we like to pretend that we believe them, but let's not delude ourselves into thinking that this is actually the case. The illusion that the courts are apolitical is critical to what legitimacy they have, but it is only an illusion - if it were true that the courts were apolitical, we wouldn't see such nasty political fights over judicial nominations. But it is still a useful illusion - we need some sort of mechanism for dispute resolution, and so we tolerate the pretense of the courts, and, in fact, actively participate in it.

Man, do you see what you're saying here? You're saying that our whole system of justice is based on an illusion, and that therefore Justice Moore is morally obligated, by his Oath, to obey the dictates of the 11th Circuit court. Forgive me if I don't find this convincing. Now I know that the courts often succumb to politicization, but dude, that's not something we should be encouraging! In fact, that's exactly the problem that I and others have been pointing to. The extent to which they allow themselves to be politicized is directly proportional to the extent to which they're neglecting their obligations under the Constitution, and inversely proportional to the respect their rulings deserve.

1,205 posted on 08/28/2003 2:42:19 PM PDT by inquest (We are NOT the world)
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To: inquest
So the question we're left with is, Does common sense require the federal government to be the one limiting the possession of extreme weapons? The answer, as I think we can both agree, is no, since the states are competent to legislate in such matters.

Based on what? From where in the Constitution do they derive such powers? Why do those supposed powers trump the supposed rights that inhere within the Ninth?

So then you could say that leaves us with the question of what to do with the 14th amendment...

Which is, as I recall, right back where we started. Welcome to the beginning ;)

Man, do you see what you're saying here?

LOL - I finally really shocked you, did I? Yes, I know what I'm saying...

You're saying that our whole system of justice is based on an illusion...

Yes.

...and that therefore Justice Moore is morally obligated, by his Oath, to obey the dictates of the 11th Circuit court.

Yes.

Forgive me if I don't find this convincing.

I don't expect you to, not solely on my say-so. Contemplating such a thing is quite shocking to most people, and the most shocking part of all is that it's completely true. And it is true - the judicial magisteria is an illusion, the same way that the dollar is an illusion. It works because we believe in it. The power of the courts is ultimately an illusion, and one that only exists because we persuade ourselves of the reality of a more fundamental illusion - the illusion that the courts are apolitical.

And that illusion comes about because people think that something magic happens when you put on those black robes - somehow you set aside your personal opinions, your past, your prejudices, your politics, and become a hard-eyed, rational, law-dispensing machine. This is what everyone allows themselves to believe, although not quite in such explicit terms - when I put it in those terms, it sounds exactly as irrational as it actually is. Or is it really irrational to believe in that illusion if it fosters some worthy end? Hmmmm...

Anyway, it's ridiculous, of course - judges are human, and judges always evaluate the law and the facts in terms of their own personal beliefs, and will continue doing so until we replace them with real law-dispensing machines. They can't help it - they're human. And yes, even conservative justices are living, breathing humans underneath the robes, before you ask.

Now, this should not be taken to mean that judges are totally cynical about what they do, and are simply manipulating the law to their own preferred ends - occasionally, you see someone like that, but not very often. Rather, what happens is that the preferred ends find a particular vehicle in one legal theory or another, and that legal theory becomes the thing which all cases are filtered through. But the key is what happens when that legal theory interferes with the preferred ends - that's when the political nature of the courts is briefly revealed, because that legal theory gets tossed right to the side in favor of something that will implement the preferred ends. Essentially, as a practical matter, all judges at every level operate according to the theory that principles are fine, so long as they don't interfere with the desired end result. And when they do, they get dropped faster than a hot rock. You sure didn't see much of a discussion of states rights in Bush v. Gore, did you? Kind of funny for a conservative court that has made states rights an issue of great importance, don't you think? And lest you think that I'm intimating that this is a peculiarly conservative affliction, trust me when I assure you that there are plenty of cases from the other side that are produced in exactly the same manner.

It's not really a matter of encouraging them to be political creatures by saying all this, I have to say - they are political creatures. We're simply recognizing that fact - there's a rather ordinary fellow behind the curtain, despite efforts to pass himself off as the Great and Powerful Oz. You can try to discourage politicization of the courts, but you can't change the fact that judges are human beings with their own ideas about how society should be organized and run.

So what keeps them in check? Why aren't they running wild and implementing whatever political theory or idea pops into their little heads? Because they know that their power is an illusion, based only on the belief among the citizenry that they are apolitical - they can't afford to be obvious or blatant about it, or they'll lose all legitimacy.

And the way they avoid being obvious or blatant about it is by keeping a thumb firmly mashed on the pulse of the people - they track the will of the people and the prevailing political mood of the day very closely. They are, in theory, not supposed to, of course, but the notion that the courts pay no heed to public opinion is out-and-out bullshit, if you will excuse the expression momentarily. Good judges always pay attention to the will of the people, because they cannot afford for a moment to find themselves in serious opposition to it - on the rare occasions when they have, the end result has always been ugly for them or for the country. The first instance was 1793, in Chisholm v Georgia - the result was the 11'th Amendment. The second was in Dred Scott - the result was 600,000 dead Americans and the 14'th Amendment. The third was in 1937, with FDR's New Deal legislation, and the result was an injury that effectively broke the back of the court for two generations and change - it is an injury that the Court is only now beginning to recover from in the last decade or so.

And so what ends up happening, far more often than not, is that, rather than having an imperial judiciary imposing their will on an unwilling citizenry, you get a rubber-stamp judiciary, effectively running around behind society and legitimizing the things the people want. They don't lead society - they can't lead society in any significant manner. Instead, they follow society - the courts are simply not an effective barrier to majoritarianism. They can only afford to oppose the majority within very narrow limits - basically, they can only produce rulings that thwart the majority if they know that the majority will tolerate being thwarted, which is why tracking the will of the people is critical. That's how they can implement those preferred ends, but it's slow and incremental, rather than radical and quick. They can only produce rulings that they know will allow the people to continue to believe in the illusion of their apolitical nature. Once they cross the line and become explicitly political, it's all over for them. Andrew Jackson stopped believing in the magic. Look what happened to the court's power then - they had none.

It's all an illusion, though - it's smoke and mirrors. There is no Santa Claus. Unlike the illusion of Santa Claus, though, this has rather more long-term utility to us - it fosters a system of dispute resolution that we can all accept, and we need that as a functioning society. And the realization that judicial power is an illusion is the most effective check upon them that can ever exist, far more so than Congress or the states or whatever. Win the hearts and minds of your fellow citizens, and the courts will always follow. Always.

And if you still don't believe me, I'll simply leave you with some history to chew on for a bit. In the early 1970's, the Supreme Court produced Roe v. Wade and a series of attendant rulings that created a rather expansive right to abortions. Then, beginning in the early 1980's, there were a series of ruling that served to narrow access to abortion, by addressing how, when, where abortions may be performed, not to mention who should pay for them.

In the middle 1950's, the Court produced Brown v. Board, and followed with a series of attendant rulings, all of which mandated the end of state-sponsored segregation in education. The lower courts took that ball and began dealing with the issue of segregation in a host of cities and states around the nation, continuing on until the middle of the 1970's. Then, in the late 1970's and early 1980's, the Supreme Court began producing a series of rulings that served to cut back on efforts to desegregate schools, by narrowing the conditions for action and the range of solutions available.

Why?

What changed? Why did the courts travel in one direction, only to backtrack later on?

The facile answer is, of course, that the courts grew more conservative in the interim. But that overlooks the deeper truth that is at work here - the reason the courts changed is because the country grew more conservative in the interim. By the late 1970's and early 1980's, those earlier rulings were about to begin producing dangerous amounts of grumbling among the citizenry, and that is the one thing that the courts absolutely cannot afford. Those early rulings had to be tweaked in order to bring them back in line with the people, in order to bring them back into that narrow range of action that the people will tolerate from the courts. And so they were.

Hearts and minds. That's where the real battle is, not in the courthouses....

1,206 posted on 08/29/2003 7:27:05 AM PDT by general_re (Today is a day for firm decisions! Or is it?)
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