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You're missing the point on an amendment. Art. 1 Sec. 8, limited the government's actions on collection of taxes (Clause 1). The 16th Amendment changed that restriction. In order to presever the document, ammendment to the Constitution do not go back and strike or insert words in the original text. When there is a conflict, the most recent Amendment wins. Looks at 18 and 21, or any of the voting rigths and elections issues.

Sorry guys, the income tax is legit., and the IRS has a training manual for it's agents that spells out the legal basis for the manditory payment/collection of taxes. They don't audit everyone every year and they don't send you a letter telling you how much you owe, hence the voluntary compliance wording. You still have to pay.

The jury decided that the government hadn't proven this woman's guilt beyond a resonable doubt. Criminal evasion of taxes has to be willfull (a simple mathmatical error on you 1040 won't land you in you in jail, assuming you pay what you owe when they correct it). The fact that they didn't answer her letters may have saved her from jail. She still owes the taxes.

Congress didn't need the 16th Amendment to be able to tax incomes. The income taxes that were imposed prior to the enactment of the 16th Amendment were frequently being mistaken as a direct tax, rather than its true nature as an indirect excise tax on a taxable activity measured by the income produced from that activity. The 16th Amendment did not expand Congress' taxing power, it just codified income taxes as indirect, which they fundamentally already were.

However, can you tell me whether Congress has the power to tax a citizen of China living and working in China? If not, why not?