Posted on 08/13/2003 6:29:32 AM PDT by bedolido
I am staggered by the sheer stupidity of this statement. Per capita income cannot be meaningfully measured during this time-frame.
The answer to this is a resounding "YES", but with one caveat... Government must not get in the way of advancement. Governments are wonderful at destroying things, very poor at encouraging or creating advancements.
In a more moderate vein, technology has, in many cases, outstripped the moral boundaries that should constrain it. It's like handing a two-year-old a loaded gun. We're capable now of doing so much more than ever before, but at our simplest, we're still just hairless apes grunting and howling around a different jungle.
Technology may continue its advance, but the repercussions will not be solely economic. The question becomes "Will technology define our society, or will our society define our technology?" I'm inclined to believe the latter.
The Romans were pretty damned good at keeping records, so we DO have a reasonable idea of the population of various areas and the level of income therein (remember why Joseph was in Bethlehem--so "all the world can be taxed"). Admittedly, it is an estimate rather than a true measurement as we expect today, but it is an estimate based on reasonable information.
Dr. Gatling invented his gun because it would end warfare by making it too horrible to contemplate.
Other examples come readily to mind.
--Boris
Based on that, I say that comparing per-capita income in (let's say) the year 500 with the year 2003 is silly. It can be done, but I think it gets you nowhere.
Unfortunately, this line of logic is usually what leads to government interference (i.e., to keep the evil controlled). I am not sure how I feel about it. I feel that technology is generally good (e.g., advances in medicine, scientific understanding, etc.), though I obviously would concede the possibility of utterly attrocious uses as well.
P.S. I hadn't seen (no offense, noticed?) you out on the boards lately. Good to post with you. It is always an interesting discussion, even when (maybe especially when) we don't agree.
Sure it does. Total goods and production (i.e. GNP) divided by total population means the same thing now as it did then--but the "error bars" are bigger, as both the "GNP" and "total population" numbers are estimates rather than measurements.
We have even today a large percentage of the population as "zeros" just as they did then. Only today they are not slaves--they are just "on welfare". Even so, they still are part of the overall economy (as consumers rather than as unpaid producers of wealth).
Now, if you want to talk about "wealth distribution", then that is a horse of a whole different pigmentation, as the fraction of "dirt poor folks" was significantly larger than in the "First World" today.
This will help: The New Diamond Age
That's precisely why I think "per-capita" is a red herring. Look, in the USA we might say that our per-capita income is $30,000 (or whatever) and Sweden's is (let's say) $31,000. This tells us that lifestyles in the two countries are roughly comparable. But in Zimbabwe, the per-capita income is $1000, so we know that most folks don't have DVDs, microwaves, and 401K plans.
I feel that the term "per-capita income is silly if wealth is inherently held by the few (as it was before industrialization). Look, if we have a small country occupied by Bill Gates and 1000 people on welfare, the per-capita income in about $20,000,000. It's true enough, but I think it tells you little of importance.
In short: I think that economic data from long ago can be derived and studied and use can be made of it in many cases. But "per-capita income" is, IMO, meaningless when society is divided between rich royalty (1%) and dirt poor serfs (99%).
But it is NOT meaningless. It measures the productivity of the given society as a whole. That the wealth ends up being concentrated in a tiny percentage of the population is irrelevant--the meaningful information is that a certain number of people generate a certain amount of wealth per person---not that they end up OWNING it.
Gross domestic product (i.e. total wealth) won't give you tne necessary info, as it tells you nothing about the productivity per person.
If we are discussing technological change, and its affect on productivity, then is income the right metric? Inflation and deflation over the course of a millenium are very hard to figure and, I think, create a margin of error which is far too big.
Inflation ups your income, but doesn't (necessarily) increase your productivity. Deflation can be caused by higher productivity, but can lower your income. So, isn't is risky to look at overall societal income (or per-capita income) and make a judgement call about how productive the people are?
If I want productivity metrics, I would measure productivity. If I want income metrics, I would measure income. I don't think they are the same thing. I'm not comfortable postulating a whole lot of data from the year 1 to the year 1820, swallowing error margin after error margin and coming up with a "per-capita income" figure and THEN using that figure to make a statement about productivity. I think at some point in the process we just go off into neverneverland.
Your analogy is completely flawed. IT and Engineering are not obsolete, so anyone with delusions of making a "buggy whip" comparison needs to rethink it. In order to find a correct and legitimate analogy to the gutting of U.S. technology base, you would have to look back in history for another viable, strategically important industry that was simply shipped overseas.
-- Robt. Oppenheimer, called by many The Father of the Atomic Bomb.
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