It is not a "smear tactic." It is a reasonable question which you have no reasonable answer for...hence your aggressive attempt to marginalize me with inept insinuation.
On what objective standard do you approve of homosexuality, but disapprove of pedophilia? Consent of adults is a dodge, because the relevant issue is WHY not WHAT.
But answer me this: If, in fact, homosexuality were actually a perversion, what evidence would you accept to prove it?