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To: Non-Sequitur
Nonsense. Regardless of whether slavery ended down south 20 years after the war, 50 years after the war or 100 years after the war that does not change the fact that the reason you claim that they had for their rebellion, "to practice the Original Principles of Government established by the Founders", would have been to the benefit of only a minority of the southerners, and would have completely excluded a third of the population.

This doesn't change the fact that the most of the "citizens" of the Northeast are now tax slaves.

I notice that you didn't address that portion of my broadside, perhaps because you couldn't. ;-)

137 posted on 07/29/2003 8:02:09 PM PDT by an amused spectator
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To: an amused spectator
I notice that you didn't address that portion of my broadside, perhaps because you couldn't. ;-)

It's hard to answer that part of your screed because that assumes that things would have been better in an independent south. You can't know that and, given the start that the confederacy had under the Davis regime, it's hard to believe that it would have been.

140 posted on 07/30/2003 2:13:20 AM PDT by Non-Sequitur
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